2025 | Original Graduate Nursing Practice Exam
100 Multiple-Choice Questions with Answers and Rationales
Independent practice material — not an actual Walden University course exam.
Questions are original and are not copied from a live exam, proprietary test bank, or university
assessment. This document is not Walden University-endorsed, professor-verified, or a
representation of the NRNP 6552 Week 5 quiz blueprint. It is a study resource broadly organized
around the women’s health topics listed in the request and advanced-practice nursing concepts.
Educational use only. Clinical guidelines and laws may vary or change; confirm current local
guidance, prescribing information, scope-of-practice rules, and jurisdiction-specific reporting
requirements before applying information in practice.
Reference basis includes CDC STI Treatment Guidelines, CDC U.S. Medical Eligibility and
Selected Practice Recommendations (2024), the USPSTF 2024 breast-screening
recommendation, and ACOG abnormal-uterine-bleeding guidance.
Page 1 of 37
,Table of Contents
Section 1: Gynecologic Infections & STI Management (Questions 1–15) ...................................... 3
Section 2: Vaginitis, Cervicitis & Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (Questions 16–30)
...................................... 8
Section 3: Menstrual Disorders & Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (Questions 31–45)
...................................... 13
Section 4: Contraception Counseling & Management (Questions 46–60) ...................................... 18
Section 5: Breast Conditions & Screening (Questions 61–75) ...................................... 24
Section 6: Perimenopause, Menopause & Hormone Therapy (Questions 76–90)
...................................... 29
Section 7: Clinical Decision Making & Women’s Health Case Application (Questions 91–100)
...................................... 34
Page 2 of 37
,Section 1: Gynecologic Infections & STI Management (Questions
1–15)
Q1: Which recommendation is appropriate for chlamydia treatment, partner services, and
retesting?
A. Defer treatment until symptoms appear
B. Treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, address partners from the prior 60
days, and arrange retesting in about 3 months [CORRECT]
C. Treat the patient only and repeat NAAT the next morning
D. Use a single dose of penicillin G and no partner services
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt treatment limits complications and transmission; partner services and
retesting at about 3 months help prevent reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Q2: Which clinical principle should guide care for chlamydia treatment, partner services,
and retesting?
A. Treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, address partners from the prior 60
days, and arrange retesting in about 3 months [CORRECT]
B. Defer treatment until symptoms appear
C. Use topical metronidazole and no follow-up
D. Treat the patient only and repeat NAAT the next morning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prompt treatment limits complications and transmission; partner services and
retesting at about 3 months help prevent reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Q3: Situation: a 24-year-old has a positive cervical chlamydia NAAT and no pregnancy.
For chlamydia treatment, partner services, and retesting, which evidence-based principle
applies?
A. Use a single dose of penicillin G and no partner services
B. Treat the patient only and repeat NAAT the next morning
C. Use topical metronidazole and no follow-up
D. Treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, address partners from the prior 60
days, and arrange retesting in about 3 months [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prompt treatment limits complications and transmission; partner services and
retesting at about 3 months help prevent reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Page 3 of 37
, Q4: Consider this clinical presentation: a 24-year-old has a positive cervical chlamydia
NAAT and no pregnancy. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Defer treatment until symptoms appear
B. Use a single dose of penicillin G and no partner services
C. Use topical metronidazole and no follow-up
D. Treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, address partners from the prior 60
days, and arrange retesting in about 3 months [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prompt treatment limits complications and transmission; partner services and
retesting at about 3 months help prevent reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Q5: Priority situation: a 24-year-old has a positive cervical chlamydia NAAT and no
pregnancy. Which action addresses the highest-risk issue?
A. Treat the patient only and repeat NAAT the next morning
B. Use a single dose of penicillin G and no partner services
C. Defer treatment until symptoms appear
D. Treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, address partners from the prior 60
days, and arrange retesting in about 3 months [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prompt treatment limits complications and transmission; partner services and
retesting at about 3 months help prevent reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Q6: Which recommendation is appropriate for pharyngeal gonorrhea follow-up?
A. Repeat a urine pregnancy test in 1 year
B. Use serology as the test of cure
C. Arrange a test of cure 7–14 days after treatment and retest for reinfection at about 3 months
[CORRECT]
D. Retest only if a partner develops symptoms
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharyngeal gonorrhea requires test of cure 7–14 days after treatment; retesting at
about 3 months addresses common reinfection. The other options are less appropriate,
unsafe, or inconsistent with the clinical priority.
Page 4 of 37