Pathophysiology (2026): 300 Practice Questions &
Detailed Rationales
300 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
NR 507 Final Exam 1 – Chamberlain Advanced Pathophysiology (2026): 300 Practice Questions &
1
Detailed Rationales
,Q1
A 68-year-old male with chronic hypertension develops increased left ventricular wall thickness
without chamber dilation. Which cellular adaptation is primarily responsible?
A) Hyperplasia of cardiac myocytes
B) Hypertrophy of cardiac myocytes CORRECT
C) Metaplasia of cardiac tissue
D) Atrophy of ventricular myocardium
Rationale
Chronic pressure overload stimulates an increase in individual myocyte size because cardiac myocytes
are terminally differentiated and cannot undergo hyperplasia.
Q2
During acute myocardial infarction, irreversibly injured myocardium shows membrane rupture,
mitochondrial swelling, and calcium influx. Which form of cell death is primarily occurring?
A) Apoptosis with orderly DNA fragmentation
B) Autophagy with lysosomal recycling
C) Necrosis with inflammatory sequelae CORRECT
D) Senescence with permanent cell-cycle arrest
Rationale
Ischemic necrosis involves loss of membrane integrity, organelle swelling, and inflammation, unlike
energy-dependent apoptosis.
Q3
A patient with chronic GERD develops replacement of esophageal squamous epithelium with
columnar epithelium. This is best classified as:
A) Metaplasia driven by chronic injury CORRECT
B) Hyperplasia of residual squamous cells
C) Dysplasia with disordered maturation
D) Neoplastic transformation to adenocarcinoma
2
,Rationale
Barrett esophagus is metaplasia—a reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another better
suited to chronic acid exposure.
Q4
A cervical biopsy shows abnormal cell size, shape, and organization, but the basement
membrane remains intact. This finding is most consistent with:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Dysplasia CORRECT
D) Anaplasia
Rationale
Dysplasia is disorganized growth with abnormal morphology and loss of polarity, but the basement
membrane remains intact.
Q5
Which type of cell death is energy-dependent, non-inflammatory, and characterized by cell
shrinkage and nuclear fragmentation?
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis CORRECT
C) Autophagy
D) Pyroptosis
Rationale
Apoptosis is programmed cell death that does not incite inflammation and features cell shrinkage and
nuclear condensation/fragmentation.
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, Q6
A cell that has lost specialized features and resembles a primitive cell is described as:
A) Dysplastic
B) Metaplastic
C) Anaplastic CORRECT
D) Hyperplastic
Rationale
Anaplasia is lack of differentiation, a hallmark of malignant tumors.
Q7
Which pigment accumulates after free radical–mediated lipid peroxidation and is associated with
aging?
A) Bilirubin
B) Lipofuscin CORRECT
C) Melanin
D) Hemosiderin
Rationale
Lipofuscin is a “wear-and-tear” pigment formed from oxidized lipids and proteins.
Q8
A 70-year-old male with chronic bronchitis has increased goblet cells and submucosal glands.
This adaptation is:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia CORRECT
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
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