San Francisco 1241 – Human Resources Analyst Exam
UPDATED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES.
Q1. What is the primary purpose of a job analysis in the City and County of San Francisco?
A. To identify essential duties, KSAOs, and minimum qualifications for classification
B. To determine employee's personal preferences for work hours
C. To evaluate the city's budget deficit only
D. To replace performance evaluations
Correct Answer: A. To identify essential duties, KSAOs, and minimum qualifications for classification
Rationale: Job analysis is foundation of HR – identifies essential duties, tasks, knowledge, skills, abilities, other
characteristics (KSAOs), minimum qualifications. Used for classification, compensation, recruitment, selection, ADA. Not
preferences or budget only, not replacement for performance eval.
Q2. Which merit system principle is mandated by the San Francisco Charter for civil service
appointments?
A. Selection based on merit and fitness demonstrated through competitive examination
B. Selection based on political affiliation
C. Selection based solely on seniority regardless of exam
D. Selection based on department head friendship
Correct Answer: A. Selection based on merit and fitness demonstrated through competitive examination
Rationale: SF Charter and Civil Service Commission rules require merit system – competitive examinations, merit and
fitness, equal opportunity, no political patronage. Political affiliation, seniority alone, friendship violate merit.
Q3. What does the term classification mean for a 1241 HR Analyst?
A. Grouping positions with similar duties, responsibilities, and qualifications into same class
B. Assigning individual performance scores
C. Determining employee's retirement date
D. Ranking employees by age
Correct Answer: A. Grouping positions with similar duties, responsibilities, and qualifications into same
class
Rationale: Classification groups positions substantially similar duties, responsibilities, authority, qualifications into same
class with same title, pay range, MQ. Not performance score, retirement, age.
Q4. How should a 1241 HR Analyst determine if a position should be reclassified?
A. Conduct desk audit, compare actual duties to class specification, analyze allocation factors
B. Ask employee what title they prefer and grant it
C. Reclassify automatically every year
D. Base solely on employee's salary request
Correct Answer: A. Conduct desk audit, compare actual duties to class specification, analyze allocation
factors
Rationale: Reclassification requires desk audit, interviews, review position description, actual duties vs class spec,
allocation factors – nature, level, difficulty, supervision, independence. Not preference, automatic, salary request.
Page 1 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
,Q5. Which compensation philosophy best describes internal equity?
A. Fair pay relationships among jobs within the organization based on job worth
B. Pay equal to external market only
C. Pay based solely on employee negotiation
D. Pay based on employee's living expenses only
Correct Answer: A. Fair pay relationships among jobs within the organization based on job worth
Rationale: Internal equity – fair pay relationships within organization based on job evaluation, worth, comparable worth.
External competitiveness – market. Both needed for total compensation. Negotiation alone and living expenses only not
philosophy.
Q6. What is the difference between exempt and non-exempt under FLSA?
A. Exempt not entitled to overtime due to duties test non-exempt entitled to overtime over 40 hours
B. Exempt gets overtime non-exempt does not
C. No difference
D. Exempt means exempt from taxes
Correct Answer: A. Exempt not entitled to overtime due to duties test non-exempt entitled to overtime
over 40 hours
Rationale: FLSA – Exempt (executive, administrative, professional, computer, outside sales) meets salary basis, salary
level, duties tests not entitled OT. Non-exempt entitled OT at 1.5x over 40 hrs/week. Exempt not tax exempt.
Q7. Which job evaluation method uses compensable factors like knowledge, problem-solving, and
accountability?
A. Point factor method
B. Whole job ranking only
C. Market pricing only
D. Seniority method
Correct Answer: A. Point factor method
Rationale: Point factor method most common for classification/compensation – uses compensable factors – knowledge,
problem-solving, accountability, working conditions – assign points, total job worth. Ranking whole job, market pricing
external data only, seniority not job evaluation.
Q8. What should a 1241 HR Analyst include in a valid selection plan for a civil service exam?
A. Job-related KSAOs, exam components weighted by job analysis, passing score, and validation strategy
B. Only interview with hiring manager
C. Only review of resumes without scoring
D. Random lottery
Correct Answer: A. Job-related KSAOs, exam components weighted by job analysis, passing score, and
validation strategy
Rationale: Valid selection plan per Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Civil Service Rules – must
be job-related, based on job analysis KSAOs, multiple components (written, oral, performance, T&E;, QAP), weights,
passing scores, validation (content, criterion, construct). Interview only, resume only, lottery not merit-based valid.
Q9. Which type of validity evidence is most common for CCSF civil service exams?
A. Content validity showing exam content samples important job duties/KSAOs
B. No validity needed
C. Face validity only that it looks good
D. Validity based on employee's appearance
Page 2 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
,Correct Answer: A. Content validity showing exam content samples important job duties/KSAOs
Rationale: Content validity most common for public sector – exam content representative sample important job
duties/KSAOs from job analysis, SMEs, linked to job. Criterion validity correlation with performance, construct validity.
Face validity looks valid insufficient alone, appearance irrelevant.
Q10. How does the Civil Service Commission Rule define eligible list?
A. List of candidates who passed exam ranked by final score available for certification
B. List of all applicants regardless of passing
C. List of retirees only
D. List of department heads
Correct Answer: A. List of candidates who passed exam ranked by final score available for certification
Rationale: Eligible list – candidates passed exam, ranked final score (including veterans preference), active period per
rules (typically 1 year), used for certification to departments. Not all applicants, not retirees only, not department heads.
Q11. What is the rule of three scores or rule of the list for certification in San Francisco?
A. Certification of eligibles with top three scores willing to accept appointment
B. Certification of only one candidate
C. Certification of all eligibles regardless of score
D. No rule exists
Correct Answer: A. Certification of eligibles with top three scores willing to accept appointment
Rationale: SF uses Rule of Three Scores – Civil Service Commission – certify eligibles with top 3 ranks/scores (e.g.,
scores 100, 95, 90) – all at those scores – who are willing. Promotes merit and hiring manager choice. Not single
candidate nor all.
Q12. Which federal law requires employers with 15+ employees to provide reasonable accommodation
for qualified individual with disability unless undue hardship?
A. Americans with Disabilities Act ADA Title I
B. Fair Labor Standards Act
C. National Labor Relations Act
D. Social Security Act
Correct Answer: A. Americans with Disabilities Act ADA Title I
Rationale: ADA Title I employment 15+ employees – prohibits discrimination qualified individual with disability, requires
reasonable accommodation unless undue hardship, interactive process, essential functions. FLSA wages hours, NLRA
labor relations, SSA benefits.
Q13. What is the interactive process under ADA?
A. Ongoing dialogue between employer and employee to identify effective reasonable accommodation
B. Employer decides without employee input
C. Employee dictates accommodation employer must accept regardless
D. No dialogue needed
Correct Answer: A. Ongoing dialogue between employer and employee to identify effective reasonable
accommodation
Rationale: Interactive process – ADA requires employer and employee engage in good faith dialogue identify limitations,
explore accommodations, assess effectiveness, choose not necessarily employee's preferred but effective. Both
participate, not unilateral.
Q14. Which leave law provides eligible CCSF employees up to 12 weeks unpaid job-protected leave for
serious health condition, family care, bonding?
Page 3 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
, A. Family and Medical Leave Act FMLA and California Family Rights Act CFRA
B. Fair Labor Standards Act
C. Workers Compensation only
D. No leave law
Correct Answer: A. Family and Medical Leave Act FMLA and California Family Rights Act CFRA
Rationale: FMLA federal and CFRA California provide up to 12 weeks unpaid job-protected leave eligible employees (12
months, 1250 hours) for own serious health condition, family care, bonding birth/adoption, qualifying exigency military.
26 weeks military caregiver. FLSA wages, Workers Comp work injury.
Q15. What is the key difference between FMLA and CFRA in California regarding pregnancy disability?
A. CFRA does not cover pregnancy disability as qualifying reason FMLA does but California Pregnancy Disability
Leave PDL provides separate up to 4 months
B. No difference
C. CFRA covers pregnancy FMLA does not
D. Both do not cover any medical
Correct Answer: A. CFRA does not cover pregnancy disability as qualifying reason FMLA does but
California Pregnancy Disability Leave PDL provides separate up to 4 months
Rationale: CFRA California excludes pregnancy disability from serious health condition definition, but separate
California Pregnancy Disability Leave PDL provides up to 4 months (88 days) for pregnancy disability, plus CFRA 12
weeks for bonding – can stack. FMLA includes pregnancy disability in 12 weeks.
Q16. Which test determines if a job is exempt under California Wage Orders vs FLSA which standard
applies?
A. Apply standard that is more protective to employee California stricter salary and duties tests
B. Apply FLSA only California irrelevant
C. Apply whichever employer prefers
D. No test needed
Correct Answer: A. Apply standard that is more protective to employee California stricter salary and
duties tests
Rationale: California has stricter wage orders – higher salary threshold (2x minimum wage), more stringent duties test
(>50% exempt duties). Employers must apply more protective standard to employee – California vs FLSA. Cannot
choose employer preference.
Q17. What is disparate impact in EEO selection?
A. Neutral policy or practice disproportionately excludes protected group without job-related business necessity
B. Intentional discrimination based on protected class
C. Same as disparate treatment
D. No impact
Correct Answer: A. Neutral policy or practice disproportionately excludes protected group without
job-related business necessity
Rationale: Disparate impact – facially neutral policy (e.g., height requirement, written test) disproportionately excludes
protected group race, sex, age – violates Title VII if not job-related and business necessity and no alternative with less
impact. Four-fifths rule 80% test adverse impact. Disparate treatment intentional different treatment.
Q18. What does the four-fifths rule help assess?
A. Whether selection rate for protected group is less than 80% of highest group indicating adverse impact
B. Whether 80% of applicants must be hired
C. Salary must be 80% of market
Page 4 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
UPDATED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES.
Q1. What is the primary purpose of a job analysis in the City and County of San Francisco?
A. To identify essential duties, KSAOs, and minimum qualifications for classification
B. To determine employee's personal preferences for work hours
C. To evaluate the city's budget deficit only
D. To replace performance evaluations
Correct Answer: A. To identify essential duties, KSAOs, and minimum qualifications for classification
Rationale: Job analysis is foundation of HR – identifies essential duties, tasks, knowledge, skills, abilities, other
characteristics (KSAOs), minimum qualifications. Used for classification, compensation, recruitment, selection, ADA. Not
preferences or budget only, not replacement for performance eval.
Q2. Which merit system principle is mandated by the San Francisco Charter for civil service
appointments?
A. Selection based on merit and fitness demonstrated through competitive examination
B. Selection based on political affiliation
C. Selection based solely on seniority regardless of exam
D. Selection based on department head friendship
Correct Answer: A. Selection based on merit and fitness demonstrated through competitive examination
Rationale: SF Charter and Civil Service Commission rules require merit system – competitive examinations, merit and
fitness, equal opportunity, no political patronage. Political affiliation, seniority alone, friendship violate merit.
Q3. What does the term classification mean for a 1241 HR Analyst?
A. Grouping positions with similar duties, responsibilities, and qualifications into same class
B. Assigning individual performance scores
C. Determining employee's retirement date
D. Ranking employees by age
Correct Answer: A. Grouping positions with similar duties, responsibilities, and qualifications into same
class
Rationale: Classification groups positions substantially similar duties, responsibilities, authority, qualifications into same
class with same title, pay range, MQ. Not performance score, retirement, age.
Q4. How should a 1241 HR Analyst determine if a position should be reclassified?
A. Conduct desk audit, compare actual duties to class specification, analyze allocation factors
B. Ask employee what title they prefer and grant it
C. Reclassify automatically every year
D. Base solely on employee's salary request
Correct Answer: A. Conduct desk audit, compare actual duties to class specification, analyze allocation
factors
Rationale: Reclassification requires desk audit, interviews, review position description, actual duties vs class spec,
allocation factors – nature, level, difficulty, supervision, independence. Not preference, automatic, salary request.
Page 1 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
,Q5. Which compensation philosophy best describes internal equity?
A. Fair pay relationships among jobs within the organization based on job worth
B. Pay equal to external market only
C. Pay based solely on employee negotiation
D. Pay based on employee's living expenses only
Correct Answer: A. Fair pay relationships among jobs within the organization based on job worth
Rationale: Internal equity – fair pay relationships within organization based on job evaluation, worth, comparable worth.
External competitiveness – market. Both needed for total compensation. Negotiation alone and living expenses only not
philosophy.
Q6. What is the difference between exempt and non-exempt under FLSA?
A. Exempt not entitled to overtime due to duties test non-exempt entitled to overtime over 40 hours
B. Exempt gets overtime non-exempt does not
C. No difference
D. Exempt means exempt from taxes
Correct Answer: A. Exempt not entitled to overtime due to duties test non-exempt entitled to overtime
over 40 hours
Rationale: FLSA – Exempt (executive, administrative, professional, computer, outside sales) meets salary basis, salary
level, duties tests not entitled OT. Non-exempt entitled OT at 1.5x over 40 hrs/week. Exempt not tax exempt.
Q7. Which job evaluation method uses compensable factors like knowledge, problem-solving, and
accountability?
A. Point factor method
B. Whole job ranking only
C. Market pricing only
D. Seniority method
Correct Answer: A. Point factor method
Rationale: Point factor method most common for classification/compensation – uses compensable factors – knowledge,
problem-solving, accountability, working conditions – assign points, total job worth. Ranking whole job, market pricing
external data only, seniority not job evaluation.
Q8. What should a 1241 HR Analyst include in a valid selection plan for a civil service exam?
A. Job-related KSAOs, exam components weighted by job analysis, passing score, and validation strategy
B. Only interview with hiring manager
C. Only review of resumes without scoring
D. Random lottery
Correct Answer: A. Job-related KSAOs, exam components weighted by job analysis, passing score, and
validation strategy
Rationale: Valid selection plan per Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Civil Service Rules – must
be job-related, based on job analysis KSAOs, multiple components (written, oral, performance, T&E;, QAP), weights,
passing scores, validation (content, criterion, construct). Interview only, resume only, lottery not merit-based valid.
Q9. Which type of validity evidence is most common for CCSF civil service exams?
A. Content validity showing exam content samples important job duties/KSAOs
B. No validity needed
C. Face validity only that it looks good
D. Validity based on employee's appearance
Page 2 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
,Correct Answer: A. Content validity showing exam content samples important job duties/KSAOs
Rationale: Content validity most common for public sector – exam content representative sample important job
duties/KSAOs from job analysis, SMEs, linked to job. Criterion validity correlation with performance, construct validity.
Face validity looks valid insufficient alone, appearance irrelevant.
Q10. How does the Civil Service Commission Rule define eligible list?
A. List of candidates who passed exam ranked by final score available for certification
B. List of all applicants regardless of passing
C. List of retirees only
D. List of department heads
Correct Answer: A. List of candidates who passed exam ranked by final score available for certification
Rationale: Eligible list – candidates passed exam, ranked final score (including veterans preference), active period per
rules (typically 1 year), used for certification to departments. Not all applicants, not retirees only, not department heads.
Q11. What is the rule of three scores or rule of the list for certification in San Francisco?
A. Certification of eligibles with top three scores willing to accept appointment
B. Certification of only one candidate
C. Certification of all eligibles regardless of score
D. No rule exists
Correct Answer: A. Certification of eligibles with top three scores willing to accept appointment
Rationale: SF uses Rule of Three Scores – Civil Service Commission – certify eligibles with top 3 ranks/scores (e.g.,
scores 100, 95, 90) – all at those scores – who are willing. Promotes merit and hiring manager choice. Not single
candidate nor all.
Q12. Which federal law requires employers with 15+ employees to provide reasonable accommodation
for qualified individual with disability unless undue hardship?
A. Americans with Disabilities Act ADA Title I
B. Fair Labor Standards Act
C. National Labor Relations Act
D. Social Security Act
Correct Answer: A. Americans with Disabilities Act ADA Title I
Rationale: ADA Title I employment 15+ employees – prohibits discrimination qualified individual with disability, requires
reasonable accommodation unless undue hardship, interactive process, essential functions. FLSA wages hours, NLRA
labor relations, SSA benefits.
Q13. What is the interactive process under ADA?
A. Ongoing dialogue between employer and employee to identify effective reasonable accommodation
B. Employer decides without employee input
C. Employee dictates accommodation employer must accept regardless
D. No dialogue needed
Correct Answer: A. Ongoing dialogue between employer and employee to identify effective reasonable
accommodation
Rationale: Interactive process – ADA requires employer and employee engage in good faith dialogue identify limitations,
explore accommodations, assess effectiveness, choose not necessarily employee's preferred but effective. Both
participate, not unilateral.
Q14. Which leave law provides eligible CCSF employees up to 12 weeks unpaid job-protected leave for
serious health condition, family care, bonding?
Page 3 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
, A. Family and Medical Leave Act FMLA and California Family Rights Act CFRA
B. Fair Labor Standards Act
C. Workers Compensation only
D. No leave law
Correct Answer: A. Family and Medical Leave Act FMLA and California Family Rights Act CFRA
Rationale: FMLA federal and CFRA California provide up to 12 weeks unpaid job-protected leave eligible employees (12
months, 1250 hours) for own serious health condition, family care, bonding birth/adoption, qualifying exigency military.
26 weeks military caregiver. FLSA wages, Workers Comp work injury.
Q15. What is the key difference between FMLA and CFRA in California regarding pregnancy disability?
A. CFRA does not cover pregnancy disability as qualifying reason FMLA does but California Pregnancy Disability
Leave PDL provides separate up to 4 months
B. No difference
C. CFRA covers pregnancy FMLA does not
D. Both do not cover any medical
Correct Answer: A. CFRA does not cover pregnancy disability as qualifying reason FMLA does but
California Pregnancy Disability Leave PDL provides separate up to 4 months
Rationale: CFRA California excludes pregnancy disability from serious health condition definition, but separate
California Pregnancy Disability Leave PDL provides up to 4 months (88 days) for pregnancy disability, plus CFRA 12
weeks for bonding – can stack. FMLA includes pregnancy disability in 12 weeks.
Q16. Which test determines if a job is exempt under California Wage Orders vs FLSA which standard
applies?
A. Apply standard that is more protective to employee California stricter salary and duties tests
B. Apply FLSA only California irrelevant
C. Apply whichever employer prefers
D. No test needed
Correct Answer: A. Apply standard that is more protective to employee California stricter salary and
duties tests
Rationale: California has stricter wage orders – higher salary threshold (2x minimum wage), more stringent duties test
(>50% exempt duties). Employers must apply more protective standard to employee – California vs FLSA. Cannot
choose employer preference.
Q17. What is disparate impact in EEO selection?
A. Neutral policy or practice disproportionately excludes protected group without job-related business necessity
B. Intentional discrimination based on protected class
C. Same as disparate treatment
D. No impact
Correct Answer: A. Neutral policy or practice disproportionately excludes protected group without
job-related business necessity
Rationale: Disparate impact – facially neutral policy (e.g., height requirement, written test) disproportionately excludes
protected group race, sex, age – violates Title VII if not job-related and business necessity and no alternative with less
impact. Four-fifths rule 80% test adverse impact. Disparate treatment intentional different treatment.
Q18. What does the four-fifths rule help assess?
A. Whether selection rate for protected group is less than 80% of highest group indicating adverse impact
B. Whether 80% of applicants must be hired
C. Salary must be 80% of market
Page 4 | San Francisco 1241 HR Analyst Exam | Perfect Edition 215Q Interrogative
