Page 1 of 93
NU 170 Exam WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS DETAILED
RATIONALES GRADED A+
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
(Questions 1-25)
1. A nurse is calculating a pregnant patient's estimated date of delivery (EDD)
using Naegele's rule. The patient's last menstrual period began on June 10. What
is the estimated date of delivery?
A. March 10
B. March 17
C. March 24
D. April 10
Rationale: Naegele's rule involves subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period and adding 7 days. June 10 minus 3 months is March 10, plus 7 days is
March 17.
2. A nurse is reviewing a patient's prenatal history and documents GTPAL. The
patient is currently pregnant for the fourth time, has delivered two children at 39
weeks, and had one miscarriage at 10 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL?
A. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
B. G4 T2 P1 A1 L2
C. G4 T2 P0 A0 L2
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D. G3 T2 P0 A1 L2
Rationale: GTPAL stands for Gravida (4), Term births (2), Preterm births (0), Abortions
(1), and Living children (2). The current pregnancy is counted in Gravida.
3. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about the purpose of the alpha-
fetoprotein (AFP) test. The nurse should explain that this test screens for which
condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Group B streptococcus
D. Placenta previa
Rationale: The AFP test is a maternal serum screening test used to detect neural tube
defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) and other chromosomal abnormalities. It is
typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who is at 20 weeks of gestation. The
patient asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse's best
response is which of the following?
A. "You should feel movement around 12 weeks."
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 18 and 22 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
D. "You should feel movement immediately after conception."
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is typically felt between
18 and 22 weeks of gestation, though it can vary.
5. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal laboratory results of a patient at 28 weeks of
gestation. Which finding requires immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL
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B. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL on a 1-hour glucose challenge test
C. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
Rationale: A blood glucose of 140 mg/dL or higher on a 1-hour glucose challenge test
is abnormal and requires further evaluation with a 3-hour glucose tolerance test to rule
out gestational diabetes.
6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about the recommended schedule for
prenatal visits. The nurse should explain that visits are typically scheduled every 4
weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until
delivery. What is the rationale for this schedule?
A. To reduce healthcare costs
B. To monitor for complications that become more frequent as pregnancy progresses
C. To provide social support to the patient
D. To ensure the patient receives adequate rest
Rationale: The increasing frequency of prenatal visits allows for closer monitoring of
maternal and fetal well-being as the risk of complications (e.g., preeclampsia, gestational
diabetes) increases in the later stages of pregnancy.
7. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks of gestation. Which finding
would the nurse expect?
A. Chadwick's sign
B. Fetal movement felt by the patient
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, a bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, is a normal
finding in early pregnancy (around 6-8 weeks). Fetal movement is felt later (18-22
weeks), and fundal height at the umbilicus is expected around 20-22 weeks.
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8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about nutrition. Which statement by the
patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will increase my folic acid intake to prevent neural tube defects."
B. "I will eat a balanced diet with plenty of fruits and vegetables."
C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 200 mg per day."
D. "I will double my calorie intake to support the pregnancy."
Rationale: The statement "I will double my calorie intake" indicates a need for further
teaching. Pregnant patients typically need only an additional 300 calories per day, not
double the intake.
9. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who reports a headache that is relieved
by acetaminophen. The nurse should recognize that this finding is which of the
following?
A. A sign of preeclampsia
B. Not a sign of preeclampsia
C. A sign of gestational diabetes
D. A sign of hyperemesis gravidarum
Rationale: If a headache is relieved by acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is NOT a sign of
preeclampsia. Preeclampsia headaches are typically severe, persistent, and unrelieved by
over-the-counter medications.
10. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a patient at 36 weeks of gestation.
The patient's urine output should NEVER be below what amount?
A. 10 mL/hour
B. 20 mL/hour
C. 30 mL/hour
D. 50 mL/hour
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NU 170 Exam WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS DETAILED
RATIONALES GRADED A+
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
(Questions 1-25)
1. A nurse is calculating a pregnant patient's estimated date of delivery (EDD)
using Naegele's rule. The patient's last menstrual period began on June 10. What
is the estimated date of delivery?
A. March 10
B. March 17
C. March 24
D. April 10
Rationale: Naegele's rule involves subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period and adding 7 days. June 10 minus 3 months is March 10, plus 7 days is
March 17.
2. A nurse is reviewing a patient's prenatal history and documents GTPAL. The
patient is currently pregnant for the fourth time, has delivered two children at 39
weeks, and had one miscarriage at 10 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL?
A. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
B. G4 T2 P1 A1 L2
C. G4 T2 P0 A0 L2
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,Page 2 of 93
D. G3 T2 P0 A1 L2
Rationale: GTPAL stands for Gravida (4), Term births (2), Preterm births (0), Abortions
(1), and Living children (2). The current pregnancy is counted in Gravida.
3. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about the purpose of the alpha-
fetoprotein (AFP) test. The nurse should explain that this test screens for which
condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Group B streptococcus
D. Placenta previa
Rationale: The AFP test is a maternal serum screening test used to detect neural tube
defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) and other chromosomal abnormalities. It is
typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who is at 20 weeks of gestation. The
patient asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse's best
response is which of the following?
A. "You should feel movement around 12 weeks."
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 18 and 22 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
D. "You should feel movement immediately after conception."
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is typically felt between
18 and 22 weeks of gestation, though it can vary.
5. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal laboratory results of a patient at 28 weeks of
gestation. Which finding requires immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL
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B. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL on a 1-hour glucose challenge test
C. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
Rationale: A blood glucose of 140 mg/dL or higher on a 1-hour glucose challenge test
is abnormal and requires further evaluation with a 3-hour glucose tolerance test to rule
out gestational diabetes.
6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about the recommended schedule for
prenatal visits. The nurse should explain that visits are typically scheduled every 4
weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until
delivery. What is the rationale for this schedule?
A. To reduce healthcare costs
B. To monitor for complications that become more frequent as pregnancy progresses
C. To provide social support to the patient
D. To ensure the patient receives adequate rest
Rationale: The increasing frequency of prenatal visits allows for closer monitoring of
maternal and fetal well-being as the risk of complications (e.g., preeclampsia, gestational
diabetes) increases in the later stages of pregnancy.
7. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks of gestation. Which finding
would the nurse expect?
A. Chadwick's sign
B. Fetal movement felt by the patient
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, a bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, is a normal
finding in early pregnancy (around 6-8 weeks). Fetal movement is felt later (18-22
weeks), and fundal height at the umbilicus is expected around 20-22 weeks.
3|Page
, Page 4 of 93
8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about nutrition. Which statement by the
patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will increase my folic acid intake to prevent neural tube defects."
B. "I will eat a balanced diet with plenty of fruits and vegetables."
C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 200 mg per day."
D. "I will double my calorie intake to support the pregnancy."
Rationale: The statement "I will double my calorie intake" indicates a need for further
teaching. Pregnant patients typically need only an additional 300 calories per day, not
double the intake.
9. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who reports a headache that is relieved
by acetaminophen. The nurse should recognize that this finding is which of the
following?
A. A sign of preeclampsia
B. Not a sign of preeclampsia
C. A sign of gestational diabetes
D. A sign of hyperemesis gravidarum
Rationale: If a headache is relieved by acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is NOT a sign of
preeclampsia. Preeclampsia headaches are typically severe, persistent, and unrelieved by
over-the-counter medications.
10. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a patient at 36 weeks of gestation.
The patient's urine output should NEVER be below what amount?
A. 10 mL/hour
B. 20 mL/hour
C. 30 mL/hour
D. 50 mL/hour
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