1
WGU D236 Objective Assessment
Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Verified
Answers Grade A Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Part I: Cellular Function, Genetics & Immunity (Questions 1-19)
Q1: A 68-year-old patient has been immobilized in bed for 3
weeks following hip surgery. The nurse notes decreased muscle
mass in the patient's lower extremities. Which cellular
adaptation best describes this change?
A. Hypertrophy – increase in cell size due to increased workload
B. Hyperplasia – increase in cell number due to hormonal
stimulation
C. Atrophy – decrease in cell size due to disuse or reduced
stimulation [CORRECT]
D. Metaplasia – conversion of one mature cell type to another
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Atrophy is the correct answer because it describes a
reduction in cell size and/or number resulting from decreased
workload, diminished blood supply, loss of innervation, or
inadequate nutrition—in this case, prolonged immobilization
leading to muscle wasting. This is a classic example of disuse
atrophy that nursing students encounter frequently in clinical
practice.
Q2: A newborn is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
Which statement accurately describes the genetic mechanism
underlying this condition?
A. A single gene mutation on chromosome 21 causing abnormal
protein production
B. Monosomy of chromosome 21 resulting from nondisjunction
during meiosis
C. Nondisjunction during meiosis leading to an extra copy of
chromosome 21 [CORRECT]
D. A chromosomal deletion removing critical genes from
chromosome 21
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down syndrome results from nondisjunction—failure
of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate
,3
properly during meiosis—which produces a gamete with an
extra chromosome 21. When fertilization occurs, the zygote
ends up with three copies (trisomy) of chromosome 21 instead
of the normal two.
Q3: A patient presents with severe crushing chest pain,
diaphoresis, and ST elevation on ECG. Cardiac enzymes
confirm myocardial infarction. The ischemic cardiac myocytes
undergo which type of cell death?
A. Apoptosis – programmed, controlled cell death with minimal
inflammation
B. Necrosis – uncontrolled cell death with inflammatory
response [CORRECT]
C. Autophagy – intracellular degradation and recycling of
damaged components
D. Pyroptosis – inflammatory programmed cell death mediated
by caspases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic injury in myocardial infarction causes
coagulative necrosis—an uncontrolled, accidental form of cell
death characterized by cell swelling, membrane rupture, and
release of intracellular contents that trigger a robust
, 4
inflammatory response. Unlike apoptosis, necrosis is
pathological and damages surrounding tissue.
Q4: A 34-year-old woman develops urticaria, wheezing, and
hypotension within minutes after receiving penicillin. Which
hypersensitivity reaction does this represent?
A. Type II – antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B. Type III – immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
C. Type I – IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity
[CORRECT]
D. Type IV – T-cell-mediated delayed-type hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation is classic Type I (immediate)
hypersensitivity, where pre-formed IgE antibodies bound to
mast cells and basophils cross-link upon antigen exposure
(penicillin), triggering degranulation and release of histamine,
leukotrienes, and other mediators that cause vasodilation,
bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability within
minutes.
WGU D236 Objective Assessment
Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Verified
Answers Grade A Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Part I: Cellular Function, Genetics & Immunity (Questions 1-19)
Q1: A 68-year-old patient has been immobilized in bed for 3
weeks following hip surgery. The nurse notes decreased muscle
mass in the patient's lower extremities. Which cellular
adaptation best describes this change?
A. Hypertrophy – increase in cell size due to increased workload
B. Hyperplasia – increase in cell number due to hormonal
stimulation
C. Atrophy – decrease in cell size due to disuse or reduced
stimulation [CORRECT]
D. Metaplasia – conversion of one mature cell type to another
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Atrophy is the correct answer because it describes a
reduction in cell size and/or number resulting from decreased
workload, diminished blood supply, loss of innervation, or
inadequate nutrition—in this case, prolonged immobilization
leading to muscle wasting. This is a classic example of disuse
atrophy that nursing students encounter frequently in clinical
practice.
Q2: A newborn is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
Which statement accurately describes the genetic mechanism
underlying this condition?
A. A single gene mutation on chromosome 21 causing abnormal
protein production
B. Monosomy of chromosome 21 resulting from nondisjunction
during meiosis
C. Nondisjunction during meiosis leading to an extra copy of
chromosome 21 [CORRECT]
D. A chromosomal deletion removing critical genes from
chromosome 21
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down syndrome results from nondisjunction—failure
of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate
,3
properly during meiosis—which produces a gamete with an
extra chromosome 21. When fertilization occurs, the zygote
ends up with three copies (trisomy) of chromosome 21 instead
of the normal two.
Q3: A patient presents with severe crushing chest pain,
diaphoresis, and ST elevation on ECG. Cardiac enzymes
confirm myocardial infarction. The ischemic cardiac myocytes
undergo which type of cell death?
A. Apoptosis – programmed, controlled cell death with minimal
inflammation
B. Necrosis – uncontrolled cell death with inflammatory
response [CORRECT]
C. Autophagy – intracellular degradation and recycling of
damaged components
D. Pyroptosis – inflammatory programmed cell death mediated
by caspases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic injury in myocardial infarction causes
coagulative necrosis—an uncontrolled, accidental form of cell
death characterized by cell swelling, membrane rupture, and
release of intracellular contents that trigger a robust
, 4
inflammatory response. Unlike apoptosis, necrosis is
pathological and damages surrounding tissue.
Q4: A 34-year-old woman develops urticaria, wheezing, and
hypotension within minutes after receiving penicillin. Which
hypersensitivity reaction does this represent?
A. Type II – antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B. Type III – immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
C. Type I – IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity
[CORRECT]
D. Type IV – T-cell-mediated delayed-type hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation is classic Type I (immediate)
hypersensitivity, where pre-formed IgE antibodies bound to
mast cells and basophils cross-link upon antigen exposure
(penicillin), triggering degranulation and release of histamine,
leukotrienes, and other mediators that cause vasodilation,
bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability within
minutes.
