NURS 101 – Fundamentals of Nursing – 2026/2027
– Questions & Verified Answers with Rationales –
Grade A+
Chapter 1: Introduction to Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice (Questions
1–20)
1. A nurse is reviewing the history of nursing and notes that Florence
Nightingale’s major contribution during the Crimean War was:
A. Establishing the first nursing school in the United States
B. Reducing mortality through improved sanitation and ventilation
C. Developing the self-care deficit theory of nursing
D. Creating the first nurse practice act
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nightingale’s systematic attention to hygiene, ventilation,
nutrition, and sanitation dramatically reduced infection and gangrene among
soldiers, lowering mortality from roughly 60% to 1%. Option A refers to later
developments in American nursing education. Option C is Dorothea Orem’s
theory. Option D is a legal/regulatory development, not Nightingale’s
contribution.
2. Which nursing theorist is best known for the Self-Care Deficit Theory?
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Martha Rogers
D. Madeleine Leininger
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orem’s theory focuses on the nurse helping patients meet self-
care requisites when they cannot do so independently. Peplau is associated with
interpersonal relations, Rogers with the Science of Unitary Human Beings, and
Leininger with transcultural nursing.
,3. A nurse is providing care that respects the patient’s values, beliefs, and
cultural practices. This best demonstrates:
A. Paternalism
B. Cultural competence
C. Autonomy
D. Beneficence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cultural competence involves integrating the patient’s cultural
values and beliefs into care. Paternalism is making decisions for the patient
without their input. Autonomy is respecting the patient’s right to self-
determination. Beneficence is doing good, but it does not specifically address
cultural integration.
4. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Nurse Practice Act?
A. To establish the curriculum for nursing schools
B. To define the scope and standards of nursing practice
C. To set reimbursement rates for nursing services
D. To regulate hospital staffing ratios
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each state’s Nurse Practice Act legally defines nursing practice,
establishes licensure requirements, and protects the public. Curriculum and
reimbursement are not the primary purpose. Staffing ratios may be addressed by
other regulations.
5. A nurse is using Virginia Henderson’s 14 basic needs framework. Which
patient need is the nurse addressing by helping a patient eat and drink
adequately?
A. Breathing normally
B. Eliminating body wastes
,C. Eating and drinking adequately
D. Avoiding danger
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Henderson’s 14 needs include “eat and drink adequately.”
Assisting with meals directly addresses this need. Breathing normally, eliminating
wastes, and avoiding danger are separate needs in her framework.
6. A nurse manager is assigning tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a
nursing assistant (UAP). Which task is most appropriate for the UAP?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Performing a sterile dressing change
C. Measuring and recording vital signs
D. Teaching a patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs on stable patients is within the UAP’s
scope when trained and supervised. Medication administration and sterile
procedures require a licensed nurse. Patient teaching requires a registered nurse
or other qualified licensed professional.
7. A nurse is reviewing the roles of the registered nurse (RN). Which activity best
demonstrates the role of patient advocate?
A. Administering a prescribed medication
B. Documenting assessment findings
C. Speaking with the provider about a patient’s concern regarding a treatment
plan
D. Completing a nursing care plan
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Advocacy involves protecting the patient’s rights and ensuring
their voice is heard, such as communicating concerns to the provider. Medication
, administration, documentation, and care planning are essential nursing functions
but do not by themselves demonstrate advocacy.
8. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Immunizing a child against measles
B. Teaching a patient about smoking cessation
C. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Performing a mammogram for early breast cancer detection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and minimizing
disability after illness. Immunizations and smoking cessation are primary
prevention. Mammography is secondary prevention (early detection).
9. A nurse is asked to define “evidence-based practice” (EBP). The best response
is:
A. Using intuition and tradition to guide care
B. Integrating the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient
preferences
C. Following hospital policy without question
D. Applying the latest technology to all patients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EBP is the conscientious integration of the best available
research, clinical expertise, and patient values and preferences. Intuition alone,
blind policy adherence, or technology use does not constitute EBP.
10. (SATA) Which of the following are core components of the nursing
metaparadigm?
Select all that apply.
A. Person
B. Health
– Questions & Verified Answers with Rationales –
Grade A+
Chapter 1: Introduction to Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice (Questions
1–20)
1. A nurse is reviewing the history of nursing and notes that Florence
Nightingale’s major contribution during the Crimean War was:
A. Establishing the first nursing school in the United States
B. Reducing mortality through improved sanitation and ventilation
C. Developing the self-care deficit theory of nursing
D. Creating the first nurse practice act
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nightingale’s systematic attention to hygiene, ventilation,
nutrition, and sanitation dramatically reduced infection and gangrene among
soldiers, lowering mortality from roughly 60% to 1%. Option A refers to later
developments in American nursing education. Option C is Dorothea Orem’s
theory. Option D is a legal/regulatory development, not Nightingale’s
contribution.
2. Which nursing theorist is best known for the Self-Care Deficit Theory?
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Martha Rogers
D. Madeleine Leininger
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orem’s theory focuses on the nurse helping patients meet self-
care requisites when they cannot do so independently. Peplau is associated with
interpersonal relations, Rogers with the Science of Unitary Human Beings, and
Leininger with transcultural nursing.
,3. A nurse is providing care that respects the patient’s values, beliefs, and
cultural practices. This best demonstrates:
A. Paternalism
B. Cultural competence
C. Autonomy
D. Beneficence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cultural competence involves integrating the patient’s cultural
values and beliefs into care. Paternalism is making decisions for the patient
without their input. Autonomy is respecting the patient’s right to self-
determination. Beneficence is doing good, but it does not specifically address
cultural integration.
4. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Nurse Practice Act?
A. To establish the curriculum for nursing schools
B. To define the scope and standards of nursing practice
C. To set reimbursement rates for nursing services
D. To regulate hospital staffing ratios
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each state’s Nurse Practice Act legally defines nursing practice,
establishes licensure requirements, and protects the public. Curriculum and
reimbursement are not the primary purpose. Staffing ratios may be addressed by
other regulations.
5. A nurse is using Virginia Henderson’s 14 basic needs framework. Which
patient need is the nurse addressing by helping a patient eat and drink
adequately?
A. Breathing normally
B. Eliminating body wastes
,C. Eating and drinking adequately
D. Avoiding danger
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Henderson’s 14 needs include “eat and drink adequately.”
Assisting with meals directly addresses this need. Breathing normally, eliminating
wastes, and avoiding danger are separate needs in her framework.
6. A nurse manager is assigning tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a
nursing assistant (UAP). Which task is most appropriate for the UAP?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Performing a sterile dressing change
C. Measuring and recording vital signs
D. Teaching a patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs on stable patients is within the UAP’s
scope when trained and supervised. Medication administration and sterile
procedures require a licensed nurse. Patient teaching requires a registered nurse
or other qualified licensed professional.
7. A nurse is reviewing the roles of the registered nurse (RN). Which activity best
demonstrates the role of patient advocate?
A. Administering a prescribed medication
B. Documenting assessment findings
C. Speaking with the provider about a patient’s concern regarding a treatment
plan
D. Completing a nursing care plan
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Advocacy involves protecting the patient’s rights and ensuring
their voice is heard, such as communicating concerns to the provider. Medication
, administration, documentation, and care planning are essential nursing functions
but do not by themselves demonstrate advocacy.
8. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Immunizing a child against measles
B. Teaching a patient about smoking cessation
C. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Performing a mammogram for early breast cancer detection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and minimizing
disability after illness. Immunizations and smoking cessation are primary
prevention. Mammography is secondary prevention (early detection).
9. A nurse is asked to define “evidence-based practice” (EBP). The best response
is:
A. Using intuition and tradition to guide care
B. Integrating the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient
preferences
C. Following hospital policy without question
D. Applying the latest technology to all patients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EBP is the conscientious integration of the best available
research, clinical expertise, and patient values and preferences. Intuition alone,
blind policy adherence, or technology use does not constitute EBP.
10. (SATA) Which of the following are core components of the nursing
metaparadigm?
Select all that apply.
A. Person
B. Health
