UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse
Practitioners: Exam 2 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Additive CNS depression is a major risk when combining:
A. Acetaminophen with water
B. Antacids with food
C. Opioids with benzodiazepines or alcohol
D. Vitamins
Correct Answer: C. Opioids with benzodiazepines or alcohol
Rationale: Respiratory depression.
2. The therapeutic index is:
A. The drug's half-life
B. The ratio of toxic dose to effective dose (TD50/ED50)
C. The bioavailability
D. The dose per kilogram
Correct Answer: B. The ratio of toxic dose to effective dose (TD50/ED50)
Rationale: Safety margin.
3. Drug interactions that increase the effect of both drugs together are called:
A. Antagonistic
B. Neutral
C. Idiosyncratic
D. Synergistic (or additive)
Correct Answer: D. Synergistic (or additive)
Rationale: Combined effect.
4. Potency refers to:
A. The maximum effect possible
B. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
C. Duration
D. Safety
Correct Answer: B. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
Rationale: Dose needed.
5. An antagonist is a drug that:
A. Activates the receptor fully
B. Increases receptor number
C. Is always irreversible
D. Binds to a receptor without activating it, blocking agonists
Correct Answer: D. Binds to a receptor without activating it, blocking agonists
Rationale: Blockade.
6. Pharmacogenomics studies:
A. Drug prices
B. Drug manufacturing
C. How genetic variation affects drug response
D. Drug storage
Correct Answer: C. How genetic variation affects drug response
Rationale: Personalized.
,7. Common strong CYP3A4 inhibitors include:
A. Rifampin and carbamazepine
B. St. John's wort
C. Phenytoin
D. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, ritonavir and grapefruit juice
Correct Answer: D. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, ritonavir and grapefruit juice
Rationale: Inhibitors.
8. Half-life is:
A. The time to peak effect
B. The duration of action
C. Time to absorption
D. The time for plasma drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Correct Answer: D. The time for plasma drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Rationale: Elimination.
9. Preferred antihypertensives in pregnancy include:
A. Labetalol, nifedipine and methyldopa
B. Lisinopril
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: A. Labetalol, nifedipine and methyldopa
Rationale: Pregnancy-safe.
10. The prescribing cascade occurs when:
A. An adverse drug effect is misinterpreted as a new condition and treated with another drug
B. A drug works well
C. Generic substitution occurs
D. Doses are tapered
Correct Answer: A. An adverse drug effect is misinterpreted as a new condition and treated
with another drug
Rationale: Recognize.
11. Medication reconciliation is performed:
A. Only at discharge
B. Annually
C. At every transition of care
D. Never
Correct Answer: C. At every transition of care
Rationale: Safety.
12. Schedule I controlled substances:
A. Are available OTC
B. Have low abuse potential
C. Have no currently accepted medical use in the U.S. and high abuse potential
D. Include benzodiazepines
Correct Answer: C. Have no currently accepted medical use in the U.S. and high abuse
potential
Rationale: e.g., heroin.
, 13. Buprenorphine products are classified as Schedule:
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. V
Correct Answer: A. III
Rationale: DEA.
14. A trailing zero (e.g., 1.0 mg) should be avoided because:
A. It is required
B. It improves clarity
C. It can be misread as 10 mg
D. It is a legal requirement
Correct Answer: C. It can be misread as 10 mg
Rationale: Safety.
15. Sliding-scale insulin alone in older adults is discouraged by the Beers Criteria because of:
A. Hypoglycemia risk without benefit
B. Weight gain
C. Cost
D. Ineffectiveness in young adults
Correct Answer: A. Hypoglycemia risk without benefit
Rationale: Beers.
16. Schedule II prescriptions:
A. Can have 5 refills
B. Can have unlimited refills
C. Can be called in routinely without restriction
D. Cannot have refills
Correct Answer: D. Cannot have refills
Rationale: Federal rule.
17. Benztropine is used to treat:
A. Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms and Parkinsonism
B. Hypertension
C. Glaucoma
D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A. Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms and Parkinsonism
Rationale: Anticholinergic.
18. Rebound nasal congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa) occurs with:
A. Saline spray
B. Intranasal steroids
C. Prolonged use of topical decongestant sprays beyond 3 days
D. Antihistamine tablets
Correct Answer: C. Prolonged use of topical decongestant sprays beyond 3 days
Rationale: Oxymetazoline.
Practitioners: Exam 2 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Additive CNS depression is a major risk when combining:
A. Acetaminophen with water
B. Antacids with food
C. Opioids with benzodiazepines or alcohol
D. Vitamins
Correct Answer: C. Opioids with benzodiazepines or alcohol
Rationale: Respiratory depression.
2. The therapeutic index is:
A. The drug's half-life
B. The ratio of toxic dose to effective dose (TD50/ED50)
C. The bioavailability
D. The dose per kilogram
Correct Answer: B. The ratio of toxic dose to effective dose (TD50/ED50)
Rationale: Safety margin.
3. Drug interactions that increase the effect of both drugs together are called:
A. Antagonistic
B. Neutral
C. Idiosyncratic
D. Synergistic (or additive)
Correct Answer: D. Synergistic (or additive)
Rationale: Combined effect.
4. Potency refers to:
A. The maximum effect possible
B. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
C. Duration
D. Safety
Correct Answer: B. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
Rationale: Dose needed.
5. An antagonist is a drug that:
A. Activates the receptor fully
B. Increases receptor number
C. Is always irreversible
D. Binds to a receptor without activating it, blocking agonists
Correct Answer: D. Binds to a receptor without activating it, blocking agonists
Rationale: Blockade.
6. Pharmacogenomics studies:
A. Drug prices
B. Drug manufacturing
C. How genetic variation affects drug response
D. Drug storage
Correct Answer: C. How genetic variation affects drug response
Rationale: Personalized.
,7. Common strong CYP3A4 inhibitors include:
A. Rifampin and carbamazepine
B. St. John's wort
C. Phenytoin
D. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, ritonavir and grapefruit juice
Correct Answer: D. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, ritonavir and grapefruit juice
Rationale: Inhibitors.
8. Half-life is:
A. The time to peak effect
B. The duration of action
C. Time to absorption
D. The time for plasma drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Correct Answer: D. The time for plasma drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Rationale: Elimination.
9. Preferred antihypertensives in pregnancy include:
A. Labetalol, nifedipine and methyldopa
B. Lisinopril
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: A. Labetalol, nifedipine and methyldopa
Rationale: Pregnancy-safe.
10. The prescribing cascade occurs when:
A. An adverse drug effect is misinterpreted as a new condition and treated with another drug
B. A drug works well
C. Generic substitution occurs
D. Doses are tapered
Correct Answer: A. An adverse drug effect is misinterpreted as a new condition and treated
with another drug
Rationale: Recognize.
11. Medication reconciliation is performed:
A. Only at discharge
B. Annually
C. At every transition of care
D. Never
Correct Answer: C. At every transition of care
Rationale: Safety.
12. Schedule I controlled substances:
A. Are available OTC
B. Have low abuse potential
C. Have no currently accepted medical use in the U.S. and high abuse potential
D. Include benzodiazepines
Correct Answer: C. Have no currently accepted medical use in the U.S. and high abuse
potential
Rationale: e.g., heroin.
, 13. Buprenorphine products are classified as Schedule:
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. V
Correct Answer: A. III
Rationale: DEA.
14. A trailing zero (e.g., 1.0 mg) should be avoided because:
A. It is required
B. It improves clarity
C. It can be misread as 10 mg
D. It is a legal requirement
Correct Answer: C. It can be misread as 10 mg
Rationale: Safety.
15. Sliding-scale insulin alone in older adults is discouraged by the Beers Criteria because of:
A. Hypoglycemia risk without benefit
B. Weight gain
C. Cost
D. Ineffectiveness in young adults
Correct Answer: A. Hypoglycemia risk without benefit
Rationale: Beers.
16. Schedule II prescriptions:
A. Can have 5 refills
B. Can have unlimited refills
C. Can be called in routinely without restriction
D. Cannot have refills
Correct Answer: D. Cannot have refills
Rationale: Federal rule.
17. Benztropine is used to treat:
A. Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms and Parkinsonism
B. Hypertension
C. Glaucoma
D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A. Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms and Parkinsonism
Rationale: Anticholinergic.
18. Rebound nasal congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa) occurs with:
A. Saline spray
B. Intranasal steroids
C. Prolonged use of topical decongestant sprays beyond 3 days
D. Antihistamine tablets
Correct Answer: C. Prolonged use of topical decongestant sprays beyond 3 days
Rationale: Oxymetazoline.
