UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse
Practitioners: Exam 1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. A drug with a high first-pass effect, such as nitroglycerin, is often given:
A. Orally in high doses only
B. Rectally only
C. Sublingually or transdermally to bypass the liver
D. Never
Correct Answer: C. Sublingually or transdermally to bypass the liver
Rationale: Route.
2. A CYP3A4 inhibitor will generally:
A. Increase levels of drugs metabolized by CYP3A4
B. Decrease levels
C. Have no effect
D. Increase excretion
Correct Answer: A. Increase levels of drugs metabolized by CYP3A4
Rationale: Toxicity risk.
3. Enterohepatic recirculation can:
A. Prolong a drug's action
B. Shorten half-life
C. Prevent absorption
D. Increase renal excretion
Correct Answer: A. Prolong a drug's action
Rationale: Bile reabsorption.
4. Pharmacodynamics describes:
A. Absorption only
B. Excretion only
C. What the drug does to the body, including receptor effects
D. Drug storage
Correct Answer: C. What the drug does to the body, including receptor effects
Rationale: Effects.
5. HLA-B*1502 testing before carbamazepine is recommended in patients of Asian ancestry to
reduce risk of:
A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome/TEN
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome/TEN
Rationale: Genetic risk.
6. A drug is considered mostly eliminated after about:
A. 1 half-life
B. 20 half-lives
C. Immediately
D. 4-5 half-lives
Correct Answer: D. 4-5 half-lives
Rationale: Clearance.
,7. Pharmacokinetics describes:
A. What the drug does to the body
B. What the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)
C. Drug cost
D. Drug marketing
Correct Answer: B. What the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism,
excretion)
Rationale: ADME.
8. An idiosyncratic reaction is:
A. A predictable side effect
B. An overdose
C. An unexpected, genetically determined response
D. A therapeutic effect
Correct Answer: C. An unexpected, genetically determined response
Rationale: Uncommon.
9. A leading zero (e.g., 0.5 mg) should be:
A. Used
B. Avoided
C. Replaced with .5
D. Optional
Correct Answer: A. Used
Rationale: Prevent tenfold error.
10. Schedule II controlled substances include:
A. Oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate and amphetamine
B. Diazepam
C. Pregabalin
D. Codeine cough syrups
Correct Answer: A. Oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate and amphetamine
Rationale: High abuse, accepted use.
11. Ceftriaxone should not be co-administered with IV calcium in neonates because of:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Allergy
C. Hearing loss
D. Risk of fatal precipitates
Correct Answer: D. Risk of fatal precipitates
Rationale: Neonatal warning.
12. The FDA Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR):
A. Added new letter categories
B. Applies only to OTC drugs
C. Was repealed
D. Replaced the A, B, C, D, X letter categories with narrative risk summaries
Correct Answer: D. Replaced the A, B, C, D, X letter categories with narrative risk summaries
Rationale: 2015.
, 13. Medications for pregnant patients should be chosen by:
A. Weighing maternal benefit against fetal risk using current evidence
B. Avoiding all drugs always
C. Using any drug
D. Using only herbal products
Correct Answer: A. Weighing maternal benefit against fetal risk using current evidence
Rationale: Risk-benefit.
14. Shared decision-making in prescribing involves:
A. Prescribing without discussion
B. Letting the pharmacist decide
C. Following ads
D. Discussing benefits, risks and patient preferences
Correct Answer: D. Discussing benefits, risks and patient preferences
Rationale: Patient-centered.
15. The anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy is generally:
A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Apixaban
D. Dabigatran
Correct Answer: A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
Rationale: Does not cross placenta.
16. Gray baby syndrome is associated with:
A. Chloramphenicol in neonates
B. Amoxicillin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: A. Chloramphenicol in neonates
Rationale: Historical.
17. Anticholinergic drugs are relatively contraindicated in:
A. Asthma only
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Narrow-angle glaucoma and BPH with urinary retention
Correct Answer: D. Narrow-angle glaucoma and BPH with urinary retention
Rationale: Worsen conditions.
18. Phenylephrine is an:
A. Alpha-1 agonist used as a decongestant and vasopressor
B. Beta blocker
C. Anticholinergic
D. Alpha blocker
Correct Answer: A. Alpha-1 agonist used as a decongestant and vasopressor
Rationale: Vasoconstrictor.
Practitioners: Exam 1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. A drug with a high first-pass effect, such as nitroglycerin, is often given:
A. Orally in high doses only
B. Rectally only
C. Sublingually or transdermally to bypass the liver
D. Never
Correct Answer: C. Sublingually or transdermally to bypass the liver
Rationale: Route.
2. A CYP3A4 inhibitor will generally:
A. Increase levels of drugs metabolized by CYP3A4
B. Decrease levels
C. Have no effect
D. Increase excretion
Correct Answer: A. Increase levels of drugs metabolized by CYP3A4
Rationale: Toxicity risk.
3. Enterohepatic recirculation can:
A. Prolong a drug's action
B. Shorten half-life
C. Prevent absorption
D. Increase renal excretion
Correct Answer: A. Prolong a drug's action
Rationale: Bile reabsorption.
4. Pharmacodynamics describes:
A. Absorption only
B. Excretion only
C. What the drug does to the body, including receptor effects
D. Drug storage
Correct Answer: C. What the drug does to the body, including receptor effects
Rationale: Effects.
5. HLA-B*1502 testing before carbamazepine is recommended in patients of Asian ancestry to
reduce risk of:
A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome/TEN
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome/TEN
Rationale: Genetic risk.
6. A drug is considered mostly eliminated after about:
A. 1 half-life
B. 20 half-lives
C. Immediately
D. 4-5 half-lives
Correct Answer: D. 4-5 half-lives
Rationale: Clearance.
,7. Pharmacokinetics describes:
A. What the drug does to the body
B. What the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)
C. Drug cost
D. Drug marketing
Correct Answer: B. What the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism,
excretion)
Rationale: ADME.
8. An idiosyncratic reaction is:
A. A predictable side effect
B. An overdose
C. An unexpected, genetically determined response
D. A therapeutic effect
Correct Answer: C. An unexpected, genetically determined response
Rationale: Uncommon.
9. A leading zero (e.g., 0.5 mg) should be:
A. Used
B. Avoided
C. Replaced with .5
D. Optional
Correct Answer: A. Used
Rationale: Prevent tenfold error.
10. Schedule II controlled substances include:
A. Oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate and amphetamine
B. Diazepam
C. Pregabalin
D. Codeine cough syrups
Correct Answer: A. Oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate and amphetamine
Rationale: High abuse, accepted use.
11. Ceftriaxone should not be co-administered with IV calcium in neonates because of:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Allergy
C. Hearing loss
D. Risk of fatal precipitates
Correct Answer: D. Risk of fatal precipitates
Rationale: Neonatal warning.
12. The FDA Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR):
A. Added new letter categories
B. Applies only to OTC drugs
C. Was repealed
D. Replaced the A, B, C, D, X letter categories with narrative risk summaries
Correct Answer: D. Replaced the A, B, C, D, X letter categories with narrative risk summaries
Rationale: 2015.
, 13. Medications for pregnant patients should be chosen by:
A. Weighing maternal benefit against fetal risk using current evidence
B. Avoiding all drugs always
C. Using any drug
D. Using only herbal products
Correct Answer: A. Weighing maternal benefit against fetal risk using current evidence
Rationale: Risk-benefit.
14. Shared decision-making in prescribing involves:
A. Prescribing without discussion
B. Letting the pharmacist decide
C. Following ads
D. Discussing benefits, risks and patient preferences
Correct Answer: D. Discussing benefits, risks and patient preferences
Rationale: Patient-centered.
15. The anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy is generally:
A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Apixaban
D. Dabigatran
Correct Answer: A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
Rationale: Does not cross placenta.
16. Gray baby syndrome is associated with:
A. Chloramphenicol in neonates
B. Amoxicillin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: A. Chloramphenicol in neonates
Rationale: Historical.
17. Anticholinergic drugs are relatively contraindicated in:
A. Asthma only
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Narrow-angle glaucoma and BPH with urinary retention
Correct Answer: D. Narrow-angle glaucoma and BPH with urinary retention
Rationale: Worsen conditions.
18. Phenylephrine is an:
A. Alpha-1 agonist used as a decongestant and vasopressor
B. Beta blocker
C. Anticholinergic
D. Alpha blocker
Correct Answer: A. Alpha-1 agonist used as a decongestant and vasopressor
Rationale: Vasoconstrictor.
