UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse
Practitioners: Exam 3 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Trough levels are drawn:
A. Immediately after a dose
B. Just before the next dose
C. At peak
D. After 24 hours always
Correct Answer: B. Just before the next dose
Rationale: Lowest.
2. A CYP inducer added to a regimen may:
A. Increase toxicity always
B. Have no effect
C. Decrease effectiveness of drugs metabolized by that enzyme (e.g., oral contraceptives)
D. Increase absorption
Correct Answer: C. Decrease effectiveness of drugs metabolized by that enzyme (e.g., oral
contraceptives)
Rationale: Reduced levels.
3. Common CYP inducers include:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin and St. John's wort
C. Fluconazole
D. Grapefruit juice
Correct Answer: B. Rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin and St. John's wort
Rationale: Inducers.
4. Peak drug levels are drawn:
A. Right before the next dose
B. Randomly
C. When the drug reaches maximal concentration after administration
D. Only at bedtime
Correct Answer: C. When the drug reaches maximal concentration after administration
Rationale: Peak.
5. Hypoalbuminemia affects highly protein-bound drugs by:
A. Decreasing the free fraction
B. No effect
C. Blocking absorption
D. Increasing the free (active) fraction
Correct Answer: D. Increasing the free (active) fraction
Rationale: e.g., phenytoin.
6. Drugs that should be taken on an empty stomach include:
A. NSAIDs
B. Metformin
C. Levothyroxine and alendronate
D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: C. Levothyroxine and alendronate
Rationale: Absorption.
,7. Zero-order kinetics means:
A. A constant fraction is eliminated
B. No elimination occurs
C. Elimination increases with dose
D. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
Correct Answer: D. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of
concentration
Rationale: Saturable.
8. Lipophilic drugs tend to:
A. Stay in plasma
B. Be excreted unchanged
C. Have no CNS effects
D. Distribute into fat and the CNS, with larger volumes of distribution
Correct Answer: D. Distribute into fat and the CNS, with larger volumes of distribution
Rationale: Distribution.
9. Generic drugs approved by the FDA must be:
A. Identical in color
B. More potent
C. Bioequivalent to the brand-name drug
D. Less effective
Correct Answer: C. Bioequivalent to the brand-name drug
Rationale: Equivalence.
10. Folic acid supplementation before conception helps prevent:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Preeclampsia
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: A. Neural tube defects
Rationale: Prevention.
11. A child weighs 22 lb. The weight in kilograms is:
A. 22 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 48 kg
D. 5 kg
Correct Answer: B. 10 kg
Rationale: 22/2.2.
12. The Beers Criteria recommend avoiding in older adults:
A. Acetaminophen in normal doses
B. Vitamin D
C. Statins
D. First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: D. First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
Rationale: Anticholinergic.
, 13. Cost-related nonadherence can be reduced by:
A. Prescribing only brand drugs
B. Ignoring cost
C. Choosing generics and discussing affordability
D. Increasing dosing frequency
Correct Answer: C. Choosing generics and discussing affordability
Rationale: Access.
14. Isotretinoin requires enrollment in the iPLEDGE program because it is:
A. Highly addictive
B. Highly teratogenic
C. Hepatotoxic only
D. Nephrotoxic
Correct Answer: B. Highly teratogenic
Rationale: Pregnancy prevention.
15. Before prescribing, the NP should verify:
A. Allergies, current medications, renal and hepatic function and pregnancy status as relevant
B. Only allergies
C. Only insurance
D. Nothing
Correct Answer: A. Allergies, current medications, renal and hepatic function and pregnancy
status as relevant
Rationale: Safety.
16. Tramadol is classified as Schedule:
A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. V
Correct Answer: B. IV
Rationale: DEA.
17. The adult dose of epinephrine (1 mg/mL) for anaphylaxis is:
A. 1 mg IV push
B. 0.3-0.5 mg IM
C. 5 mg IM
D. 0.01 mg orally
Correct Answer: B. 0.3-0.5 mg IM
Rationale: Dose.
18. Beta-2 receptors are located mainly in the:
A. Heart
B. Kidneys only
C. Bronchial smooth muscle
D. Brain only
Correct Answer: C. Bronchial smooth muscle
Rationale: Bronchodilation.
Practitioners: Exam 3 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Trough levels are drawn:
A. Immediately after a dose
B. Just before the next dose
C. At peak
D. After 24 hours always
Correct Answer: B. Just before the next dose
Rationale: Lowest.
2. A CYP inducer added to a regimen may:
A. Increase toxicity always
B. Have no effect
C. Decrease effectiveness of drugs metabolized by that enzyme (e.g., oral contraceptives)
D. Increase absorption
Correct Answer: C. Decrease effectiveness of drugs metabolized by that enzyme (e.g., oral
contraceptives)
Rationale: Reduced levels.
3. Common CYP inducers include:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin and St. John's wort
C. Fluconazole
D. Grapefruit juice
Correct Answer: B. Rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin and St. John's wort
Rationale: Inducers.
4. Peak drug levels are drawn:
A. Right before the next dose
B. Randomly
C. When the drug reaches maximal concentration after administration
D. Only at bedtime
Correct Answer: C. When the drug reaches maximal concentration after administration
Rationale: Peak.
5. Hypoalbuminemia affects highly protein-bound drugs by:
A. Decreasing the free fraction
B. No effect
C. Blocking absorption
D. Increasing the free (active) fraction
Correct Answer: D. Increasing the free (active) fraction
Rationale: e.g., phenytoin.
6. Drugs that should be taken on an empty stomach include:
A. NSAIDs
B. Metformin
C. Levothyroxine and alendronate
D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: C. Levothyroxine and alendronate
Rationale: Absorption.
,7. Zero-order kinetics means:
A. A constant fraction is eliminated
B. No elimination occurs
C. Elimination increases with dose
D. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
Correct Answer: D. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of
concentration
Rationale: Saturable.
8. Lipophilic drugs tend to:
A. Stay in plasma
B. Be excreted unchanged
C. Have no CNS effects
D. Distribute into fat and the CNS, with larger volumes of distribution
Correct Answer: D. Distribute into fat and the CNS, with larger volumes of distribution
Rationale: Distribution.
9. Generic drugs approved by the FDA must be:
A. Identical in color
B. More potent
C. Bioequivalent to the brand-name drug
D. Less effective
Correct Answer: C. Bioequivalent to the brand-name drug
Rationale: Equivalence.
10. Folic acid supplementation before conception helps prevent:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Preeclampsia
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: A. Neural tube defects
Rationale: Prevention.
11. A child weighs 22 lb. The weight in kilograms is:
A. 22 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 48 kg
D. 5 kg
Correct Answer: B. 10 kg
Rationale: 22/2.2.
12. The Beers Criteria recommend avoiding in older adults:
A. Acetaminophen in normal doses
B. Vitamin D
C. Statins
D. First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: D. First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
Rationale: Anticholinergic.
, 13. Cost-related nonadherence can be reduced by:
A. Prescribing only brand drugs
B. Ignoring cost
C. Choosing generics and discussing affordability
D. Increasing dosing frequency
Correct Answer: C. Choosing generics and discussing affordability
Rationale: Access.
14. Isotretinoin requires enrollment in the iPLEDGE program because it is:
A. Highly addictive
B. Highly teratogenic
C. Hepatotoxic only
D. Nephrotoxic
Correct Answer: B. Highly teratogenic
Rationale: Pregnancy prevention.
15. Before prescribing, the NP should verify:
A. Allergies, current medications, renal and hepatic function and pregnancy status as relevant
B. Only allergies
C. Only insurance
D. Nothing
Correct Answer: A. Allergies, current medications, renal and hepatic function and pregnancy
status as relevant
Rationale: Safety.
16. Tramadol is classified as Schedule:
A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. V
Correct Answer: B. IV
Rationale: DEA.
17. The adult dose of epinephrine (1 mg/mL) for anaphylaxis is:
A. 1 mg IV push
B. 0.3-0.5 mg IM
C. 5 mg IM
D. 0.01 mg orally
Correct Answer: B. 0.3-0.5 mg IM
Rationale: Dose.
18. Beta-2 receptors are located mainly in the:
A. Heart
B. Kidneys only
C. Bronchial smooth muscle
D. Brain only
Correct Answer: C. Bronchial smooth muscle
Rationale: Bronchodilation.
