CRRN Certification Exam 2026-2027 Study
Guide | Rehabilitation Nursing Review,
Practice Domains & Competency Framework
Practice Question Bank & Answer Rationale
THIS PACK CONTAINS
149 exam-style multiple-choice questions. Each question includes the correct answer and a complete
rationale for focused revision.
COVERAGE
This comprehensive exam assesses advanced rehabilitation nursing knowledge across the CRRN practice
domains, including functional assessment, bowel/bladder management, neurorehabilitation, cardiopulmonary
rehab, musculoskeletal care, psychosocial and vocational rehabilitation, and regulatory/ethical frameworks.
Items require application-level clinical reasoning consistent with the Certified Rehabilitation Registered Nurse
(CRRN) exam blueprint.
STUDY GUIDE
Recommended duration: 2.5 hours. Passing target: 80% (40/50 correct).
HIGHP - Page 1 of 50
,1. A rehabilitation nurse is assessing a patient with a new T6 spinal cord injury for
autonomic dysreflexia. Which finding is most consistent with this emergency?
[ ] A. Bradycardia with systolic blood pressure 180 mm Hg
[ ] B. Tachycardia with systolic blood pressure 90 mm Hg
[ ] C. Hypotension with flushing below the level of injury
[ ] D. Fever with diffuse diaphoresis above the level of injury
CORRECT: A. Bradycardia with systolic blood pressure 180 mm Hg
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by severe hypertension (often >20 mm Hg above baseline) and
compensatory bradycardia due to unopposed vagal tone, typically triggered by noxious stimuli below the
injury level. Tachycardia and hypotension (B) suggest neurogenic shock. Flushing below the level (C) is not
typical; pallor and goosebumps occur below the lesion. Fever with diaphoresis (D) is nonspecific and not the
hallmark of dysreflexia.
2. A patient with a recent stroke has been prescribed a pureed diet with honey-thick
liquids. Which nursing action is most appropriate to ensure safety during meals?
[ ] A. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and monitor for pocketing.
[ ] B. Encourage the patient to drink thin liquids to improve hydration.
[ ] C. Have the patient lie flat during meals to prevent aspiration.
[ ] D. Offer a straw for all liquids to control the rate of intake.
CORRECT: A. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and monitor for pocketing.
Placing food on the unaffected side and checking for pocketing addresses hemianesthesia and hemiparesis,
reducing aspiration risk. Thin liquids (B) are contraindicated with honey-thick orders. Lying flat (C) increases
aspiration risk; upright positioning is required. Straws (D) can increase aspiration risk by delivering liquid too
quickly.
3. A rehabilitation nurse is evaluating a patient's functional status using the Functional
Independence Measure (FIM). The patient requires supervision and setup for dressing but
performs the task independently. What FIM score should the nurse assign?
[ ] A. 5 (Supervision or Setup)
[ ] B. 6 (Modified Independence)
[ ] C. 4 (Minimal Contact Assistance)
[ ] D. 7 (Complete Independence)
CORRECT: A. 5 (Supervision or Setup)
A FIM score of 5 indicates the patient requires supervision, prompting, or setup but no physical assistance.
Score 6 (B) indicates modified independence with use of a device or extra time. Score 4 (C) requires minimal
physical contact assistance. Score 7 (D) is complete independence without devices or supervision.
HIGHP - Page 2 of 50
,4. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing deep vein thrombosis in a patient
admitted to inpatient rehabilitation after total knee arthroplasty?
[ ] A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression devices while in bed.
[ ] B. Perform passive range of motion to the affected knee every 2 hours.
[ ] C. Administer aspirin 81 mg daily as the primary prophylaxis.
[ ] D. Keep the affected leg in continuous extension with a knee immobilizer.
CORRECT: A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression devices while in bed.
Intermittent pneumatic compression is a recommended mechanical prophylaxis for DVT in postoperative
orthopedic rehabilitation patients, especially when anticoagulants are contraindicated or used adjunctively.
Passive ROM (B) may not provide adequate venous return and can be unsafe immediately post-op. Aspirin
(C) is not first-line for VTE prophylaxis after major orthopedic surgery. Continuous immobilization (D)
promotes stasis and increases DVT risk.
5. A rehabilitation nurse is counseling a patient with a new colostomy about bowel
management. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
[ ] A. I should irrigate my colostomy at the same time each day to establish regularity.
[ ] B. I should avoid all high-fiber foods to prevent blockage.
[ ] C. I should change the appliance every day regardless of leakage.
[ ] D. I should take a laxative nightly to ensure a bowel movement.
CORRECT: A. I should irrigate my colostomy at the same time each day to establish regularity.
Colostomy irrigation performed at a consistent time daily helps regulate bowel elimination, particularly for
descending or sigmoid colostomies. Avoiding all high-fiber foods (B) is unnecessary and can lead to
constipation; fiber should be introduced gradually. Daily appliance changes (C) are not required unless
leaking; pouches can last 3-7 days. Nightly laxatives (D) are not recommended and can cause dependency
or diarrhea.
6. A patient with multiple sclerosis reports severe fatigue that interferes with daily
activities. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to address this symptom?
[ ] A. Schedule high-energy activities in the morning and plan rest periods.
[ ] B. Encourage a high-intensity aerobic exercise program daily.
[ ] C. Recommend increasing caffeine intake throughout the day.
[ ] D. Administer a stimulant medication before bedtime.
CORRECT: A. Schedule high-energy activities in the morning and plan rest periods.
Energy conservation techniques, such as scheduling demanding tasks during peak energy periods (often
morning) and interspersing rest, are first-line for MS-related fatigue. High-intensity exercise (B) can
exacerbate fatigue; moderate, tailored exercise is preferred. Caffeine (C) may disrupt sleep and is not a
primary intervention. Stimulants (D) before bedtime would worsen insomnia.
HIGHP - Page 3 of 50
, 7. A rehabilitation nurse is teaching a patient with a new lower-limb prosthesis about skin
care. Which instruction is most important to include?
[ ] A. Inspect the residual limb daily, especially over bony prominences.
[ ] B. Apply lotion generously to the residual limb before donning the prosthesis.
[ ] C. Wear the prosthesis for 8 hours continuously without removal.
[ ] D. Use alcohol-based cleansers on the residual limb to toughen the skin.
CORRECT: A. Inspect the residual limb daily, especially over bony prominences.
Daily inspection of the residual limb allows early detection of skin breakdown, which is critical for prosthesis
tolerance. Lotion (B) can soften skin and cause breakdown; it should be applied sparingly and allowed to
absorb. Continuous wear (C) without removal prevents inspection and can lead to injury. Alcohol (D) dries
and irritates skin, increasing breakdown risk.
8. Which action by the rehabilitation nurse best demonstrates the principle of
patient-centered care during goal setting?
[ ] A. Collaborating with the patient to identify meaningful functional goals.
[ ] B. Setting goals based on the interdisciplinary team's standardized protocol.
[ ] C. Prioritizing goals that shorten the length of stay.
[ ] D. Establishing goals primarily to meet insurance reimbursement criteria.
CORRECT: A. Collaborating with the patient to identify meaningful functional goals.
Patient-centered care requires that goals be meaningful to the patient and developed collaboratively, which
enhances motivation and outcomes. Standardized team goals (B) may not reflect patient values. Shortening
length of stay (C) and meeting reimbursement criteria (D) are system-centered, not patient-centered, and
may conflict with individual needs.
9. A rehabilitation nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a patient with a traumatic brain
injury who is in a minimally conscious state. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate to promote arousal and awareness?
[ ] A. Provide frequent, structured sensory stimulation with familiar voices and music.
[ ] B. Limit all environmental stimuli to allow complete rest.
[ ] C. Administer sedative medications to prevent agitation.
[ ] D. Perform passive range of motion only during periods of deep sleep.
CORRECT: A. Provide frequent, structured sensory stimulation with familiar voices and music.
Structured sensory stimulation using familiar stimuli may promote arousal and awareness in patients with
disorders of consciousness. Complete stimulus restriction (B) can lead to sensory deprivation. Sedatives (C)
can further depress consciousness. Passive ROM (D) should be performed during wakeful periods to
promote engagement and prevent contractures.
HIGHP - Page 4 of 50
Guide | Rehabilitation Nursing Review,
Practice Domains & Competency Framework
Practice Question Bank & Answer Rationale
THIS PACK CONTAINS
149 exam-style multiple-choice questions. Each question includes the correct answer and a complete
rationale for focused revision.
COVERAGE
This comprehensive exam assesses advanced rehabilitation nursing knowledge across the CRRN practice
domains, including functional assessment, bowel/bladder management, neurorehabilitation, cardiopulmonary
rehab, musculoskeletal care, psychosocial and vocational rehabilitation, and regulatory/ethical frameworks.
Items require application-level clinical reasoning consistent with the Certified Rehabilitation Registered Nurse
(CRRN) exam blueprint.
STUDY GUIDE
Recommended duration: 2.5 hours. Passing target: 80% (40/50 correct).
HIGHP - Page 1 of 50
,1. A rehabilitation nurse is assessing a patient with a new T6 spinal cord injury for
autonomic dysreflexia. Which finding is most consistent with this emergency?
[ ] A. Bradycardia with systolic blood pressure 180 mm Hg
[ ] B. Tachycardia with systolic blood pressure 90 mm Hg
[ ] C. Hypotension with flushing below the level of injury
[ ] D. Fever with diffuse diaphoresis above the level of injury
CORRECT: A. Bradycardia with systolic blood pressure 180 mm Hg
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by severe hypertension (often >20 mm Hg above baseline) and
compensatory bradycardia due to unopposed vagal tone, typically triggered by noxious stimuli below the
injury level. Tachycardia and hypotension (B) suggest neurogenic shock. Flushing below the level (C) is not
typical; pallor and goosebumps occur below the lesion. Fever with diaphoresis (D) is nonspecific and not the
hallmark of dysreflexia.
2. A patient with a recent stroke has been prescribed a pureed diet with honey-thick
liquids. Which nursing action is most appropriate to ensure safety during meals?
[ ] A. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and monitor for pocketing.
[ ] B. Encourage the patient to drink thin liquids to improve hydration.
[ ] C. Have the patient lie flat during meals to prevent aspiration.
[ ] D. Offer a straw for all liquids to control the rate of intake.
CORRECT: A. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and monitor for pocketing.
Placing food on the unaffected side and checking for pocketing addresses hemianesthesia and hemiparesis,
reducing aspiration risk. Thin liquids (B) are contraindicated with honey-thick orders. Lying flat (C) increases
aspiration risk; upright positioning is required. Straws (D) can increase aspiration risk by delivering liquid too
quickly.
3. A rehabilitation nurse is evaluating a patient's functional status using the Functional
Independence Measure (FIM). The patient requires supervision and setup for dressing but
performs the task independently. What FIM score should the nurse assign?
[ ] A. 5 (Supervision or Setup)
[ ] B. 6 (Modified Independence)
[ ] C. 4 (Minimal Contact Assistance)
[ ] D. 7 (Complete Independence)
CORRECT: A. 5 (Supervision or Setup)
A FIM score of 5 indicates the patient requires supervision, prompting, or setup but no physical assistance.
Score 6 (B) indicates modified independence with use of a device or extra time. Score 4 (C) requires minimal
physical contact assistance. Score 7 (D) is complete independence without devices or supervision.
HIGHP - Page 2 of 50
,4. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing deep vein thrombosis in a patient
admitted to inpatient rehabilitation after total knee arthroplasty?
[ ] A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression devices while in bed.
[ ] B. Perform passive range of motion to the affected knee every 2 hours.
[ ] C. Administer aspirin 81 mg daily as the primary prophylaxis.
[ ] D. Keep the affected leg in continuous extension with a knee immobilizer.
CORRECT: A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression devices while in bed.
Intermittent pneumatic compression is a recommended mechanical prophylaxis for DVT in postoperative
orthopedic rehabilitation patients, especially when anticoagulants are contraindicated or used adjunctively.
Passive ROM (B) may not provide adequate venous return and can be unsafe immediately post-op. Aspirin
(C) is not first-line for VTE prophylaxis after major orthopedic surgery. Continuous immobilization (D)
promotes stasis and increases DVT risk.
5. A rehabilitation nurse is counseling a patient with a new colostomy about bowel
management. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
[ ] A. I should irrigate my colostomy at the same time each day to establish regularity.
[ ] B. I should avoid all high-fiber foods to prevent blockage.
[ ] C. I should change the appliance every day regardless of leakage.
[ ] D. I should take a laxative nightly to ensure a bowel movement.
CORRECT: A. I should irrigate my colostomy at the same time each day to establish regularity.
Colostomy irrigation performed at a consistent time daily helps regulate bowel elimination, particularly for
descending or sigmoid colostomies. Avoiding all high-fiber foods (B) is unnecessary and can lead to
constipation; fiber should be introduced gradually. Daily appliance changes (C) are not required unless
leaking; pouches can last 3-7 days. Nightly laxatives (D) are not recommended and can cause dependency
or diarrhea.
6. A patient with multiple sclerosis reports severe fatigue that interferes with daily
activities. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to address this symptom?
[ ] A. Schedule high-energy activities in the morning and plan rest periods.
[ ] B. Encourage a high-intensity aerobic exercise program daily.
[ ] C. Recommend increasing caffeine intake throughout the day.
[ ] D. Administer a stimulant medication before bedtime.
CORRECT: A. Schedule high-energy activities in the morning and plan rest periods.
Energy conservation techniques, such as scheduling demanding tasks during peak energy periods (often
morning) and interspersing rest, are first-line for MS-related fatigue. High-intensity exercise (B) can
exacerbate fatigue; moderate, tailored exercise is preferred. Caffeine (C) may disrupt sleep and is not a
primary intervention. Stimulants (D) before bedtime would worsen insomnia.
HIGHP - Page 3 of 50
, 7. A rehabilitation nurse is teaching a patient with a new lower-limb prosthesis about skin
care. Which instruction is most important to include?
[ ] A. Inspect the residual limb daily, especially over bony prominences.
[ ] B. Apply lotion generously to the residual limb before donning the prosthesis.
[ ] C. Wear the prosthesis for 8 hours continuously without removal.
[ ] D. Use alcohol-based cleansers on the residual limb to toughen the skin.
CORRECT: A. Inspect the residual limb daily, especially over bony prominences.
Daily inspection of the residual limb allows early detection of skin breakdown, which is critical for prosthesis
tolerance. Lotion (B) can soften skin and cause breakdown; it should be applied sparingly and allowed to
absorb. Continuous wear (C) without removal prevents inspection and can lead to injury. Alcohol (D) dries
and irritates skin, increasing breakdown risk.
8. Which action by the rehabilitation nurse best demonstrates the principle of
patient-centered care during goal setting?
[ ] A. Collaborating with the patient to identify meaningful functional goals.
[ ] B. Setting goals based on the interdisciplinary team's standardized protocol.
[ ] C. Prioritizing goals that shorten the length of stay.
[ ] D. Establishing goals primarily to meet insurance reimbursement criteria.
CORRECT: A. Collaborating with the patient to identify meaningful functional goals.
Patient-centered care requires that goals be meaningful to the patient and developed collaboratively, which
enhances motivation and outcomes. Standardized team goals (B) may not reflect patient values. Shortening
length of stay (C) and meeting reimbursement criteria (D) are system-centered, not patient-centered, and
may conflict with individual needs.
9. A rehabilitation nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a patient with a traumatic brain
injury who is in a minimally conscious state. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate to promote arousal and awareness?
[ ] A. Provide frequent, structured sensory stimulation with familiar voices and music.
[ ] B. Limit all environmental stimuli to allow complete rest.
[ ] C. Administer sedative medications to prevent agitation.
[ ] D. Perform passive range of motion only during periods of deep sleep.
CORRECT: A. Provide frequent, structured sensory stimulation with familiar voices and music.
Structured sensory stimulation using familiar stimuli may promote arousal and awareness in patients with
disorders of consciousness. Complete stimulus restriction (B) can lead to sensory deprivation. Sedatives (C)
can further depress consciousness. Passive ROM (D) should be performed during wakeful periods to
promote engagement and prevent contractures.
HIGHP - Page 4 of 50
