Pediatric Immunization: Exam 1 - Questions with Correct
Answers
100 questions
1. Multiple vaccines at one visit:
A. Do not overwhelm the infant's immune system
B. Overwhelm the immune system
C. Are always unsafe
D. Cancel each other out
Correct Answer: A. Do not overwhelm the infant's immune system
Rationale: Infants respond to many antigens daily.
2. An antigen is:
A. A substance that triggers an immune response
B. An antibody
C. A white blood cell
D. A vaccine diluent only
Correct Answer: A. A substance that triggers an immune response
Rationale: Vaccines contain antigens.
3. Natural killer cells:
A. Produce antibodies
B. Destroy virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
C. Carry oxygen
D. Clot blood
Correct Answer: B. Destroy virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
Rationale: Innate immunity.
4. Secretory IgA in breast milk primarily protects the infant's:
A. Mucosal surfaces such as the gut
B. Bloodstream only
C. Bone marrow
D. Skin only
Correct Answer: A. Mucosal surfaces such as the gut
Rationale: Mucosal immunity.
5. Vaccine effectiveness refers to:
A. Laboratory potency only
B. How well a vaccine works in real-world conditions
C. Price
D. Packaging
Correct Answer: B. How well a vaccine works in real-world conditions
Rationale: Observational studies.
6. An immunocompromised child is at risk from vaccines that:
A. Are inactivated
B. Are toxoids
C. Contain live attenuated organisms
D. Are subunit
Correct Answer: C. Contain live attenuated organisms
Rationale: Live vaccines may cause disease.
,7. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgG
Correct Answer: D. IgG
Rationale: Provides newborn passive protection.
8. Antibody titers are measured to:
A. Measure blood glucose
B. Diagnose anemia
C. Assess immunity to specific diseases
D. Count platelets
Correct Answer: C. Assess immunity to specific diseases
Rationale: E.g., rubella titer.
9. Live vaccines generally:
A. Produce strong, long-lasting immunity with fewer doses
B. Require many boosters
C. Are safe in all immunocompromised patients
D. Never cause mild illness
Correct Answer: A. Produce strong, long-lasting immunity with fewer doses
Rationale: Mimic infection.
10. Td vaccine contains:
A. Pertussis only
B. Polio
C. Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids, without pertussis
D. Hib
Correct Answer: C. Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids, without pertussis
Rationale: Booster.
11. A live attenuated vaccine contains:
A. Killed organisms
B. Inactivated toxins
C. Only antibodies
D. A weakened form of the living organism
Correct Answer: D. A weakened form of the living organism
Rationale: E.g., MMR, varicella.
12. Kinrix and Quadracel are used for:
A. The 4-6 year DTaP and IPV doses
B. Infant hepatitis B
C. Adolescent HPV
D. Rotavirus
Correct Answer: A. The 4-6 year DTaP and IPV doses
Rationale: Booster combination.
, 13. Which vaccines are conjugate vaccines?
A. MMR and varicella
B. IPV and hepatitis A
C. Rotavirus and LAIV
D. Hib, PCV and MenACWY
Correct Answer: D. Hib, PCV and MenACWY
Rationale: Polysaccharide-protein conjugates.
14. A live vaccine can rarely cause:
A. A mild form of the disease
B. Tetanus
C. Diabetes
D. Autism
Correct Answer: A. A mild form of the disease
Rationale: E.g., mild varicella rash.
15. RotaTeq (RV5) is given in:
A. 2 doses
B. 1 dose
C. 3 doses
D. 4 doses
Correct Answer: C. 3 doses
Rationale: At 2, 4 and 6 months.
16. Trace antibiotics such as neomycin in some vaccines are used to:
A. Treat infection in the child
B. Prevent bacterial contamination during manufacturing
C. Increase immunity
D. Change flavor
Correct Answer: B. Prevent bacterial contamination during manufacturing
Rationale: Neomycin allergy may matter.
17. A child with chickenpox is considered no longer contagious when:
A. The fever starts
B. The first lesion appears
C. After one day
D. All lesions have crusted over
Correct Answer: D. All lesions have crusted over
Rationale: Return to school.
18. Neonatal varicella is most severe when the mother develops rash:
A. Months before delivery
B. 5 days before to 2 days after delivery
C. After 6 months
D. Never
Correct Answer: B. 5 days before to 2 days after delivery
Rationale: Infant receives no maternal antibody.
Answers
100 questions
1. Multiple vaccines at one visit:
A. Do not overwhelm the infant's immune system
B. Overwhelm the immune system
C. Are always unsafe
D. Cancel each other out
Correct Answer: A. Do not overwhelm the infant's immune system
Rationale: Infants respond to many antigens daily.
2. An antigen is:
A. A substance that triggers an immune response
B. An antibody
C. A white blood cell
D. A vaccine diluent only
Correct Answer: A. A substance that triggers an immune response
Rationale: Vaccines contain antigens.
3. Natural killer cells:
A. Produce antibodies
B. Destroy virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
C. Carry oxygen
D. Clot blood
Correct Answer: B. Destroy virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
Rationale: Innate immunity.
4. Secretory IgA in breast milk primarily protects the infant's:
A. Mucosal surfaces such as the gut
B. Bloodstream only
C. Bone marrow
D. Skin only
Correct Answer: A. Mucosal surfaces such as the gut
Rationale: Mucosal immunity.
5. Vaccine effectiveness refers to:
A. Laboratory potency only
B. How well a vaccine works in real-world conditions
C. Price
D. Packaging
Correct Answer: B. How well a vaccine works in real-world conditions
Rationale: Observational studies.
6. An immunocompromised child is at risk from vaccines that:
A. Are inactivated
B. Are toxoids
C. Contain live attenuated organisms
D. Are subunit
Correct Answer: C. Contain live attenuated organisms
Rationale: Live vaccines may cause disease.
,7. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgG
Correct Answer: D. IgG
Rationale: Provides newborn passive protection.
8. Antibody titers are measured to:
A. Measure blood glucose
B. Diagnose anemia
C. Assess immunity to specific diseases
D. Count platelets
Correct Answer: C. Assess immunity to specific diseases
Rationale: E.g., rubella titer.
9. Live vaccines generally:
A. Produce strong, long-lasting immunity with fewer doses
B. Require many boosters
C. Are safe in all immunocompromised patients
D. Never cause mild illness
Correct Answer: A. Produce strong, long-lasting immunity with fewer doses
Rationale: Mimic infection.
10. Td vaccine contains:
A. Pertussis only
B. Polio
C. Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids, without pertussis
D. Hib
Correct Answer: C. Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids, without pertussis
Rationale: Booster.
11. A live attenuated vaccine contains:
A. Killed organisms
B. Inactivated toxins
C. Only antibodies
D. A weakened form of the living organism
Correct Answer: D. A weakened form of the living organism
Rationale: E.g., MMR, varicella.
12. Kinrix and Quadracel are used for:
A. The 4-6 year DTaP and IPV doses
B. Infant hepatitis B
C. Adolescent HPV
D. Rotavirus
Correct Answer: A. The 4-6 year DTaP and IPV doses
Rationale: Booster combination.
, 13. Which vaccines are conjugate vaccines?
A. MMR and varicella
B. IPV and hepatitis A
C. Rotavirus and LAIV
D. Hib, PCV and MenACWY
Correct Answer: D. Hib, PCV and MenACWY
Rationale: Polysaccharide-protein conjugates.
14. A live vaccine can rarely cause:
A. A mild form of the disease
B. Tetanus
C. Diabetes
D. Autism
Correct Answer: A. A mild form of the disease
Rationale: E.g., mild varicella rash.
15. RotaTeq (RV5) is given in:
A. 2 doses
B. 1 dose
C. 3 doses
D. 4 doses
Correct Answer: C. 3 doses
Rationale: At 2, 4 and 6 months.
16. Trace antibiotics such as neomycin in some vaccines are used to:
A. Treat infection in the child
B. Prevent bacterial contamination during manufacturing
C. Increase immunity
D. Change flavor
Correct Answer: B. Prevent bacterial contamination during manufacturing
Rationale: Neomycin allergy may matter.
17. A child with chickenpox is considered no longer contagious when:
A. The fever starts
B. The first lesion appears
C. After one day
D. All lesions have crusted over
Correct Answer: D. All lesions have crusted over
Rationale: Return to school.
18. Neonatal varicella is most severe when the mother develops rash:
A. Months before delivery
B. 5 days before to 2 days after delivery
C. After 6 months
D. Never
Correct Answer: B. 5 days before to 2 days after delivery
Rationale: Infant receives no maternal antibody.
