HESI RN FUNDAMENTALS EXAM
| Brand New
75 TESTED ITEMS |15 UNSCORED
Questions & Answers with Expert Rationales
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
, HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals Exam – Original Exam
Q1. A registered nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks should the RN delegate to the LPN? Select
all that apply.
A. Administer oral medications to stable clients [CORRECT]
B. Perform the initial admission assessment
C. Monitor a stable client's vital signs [CORRECT]
D. Develop the client's plan of care
E. Perform sterile dressing changes on a stable wound [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: Correct because LPNs can administer oral medications, monitor stable clients, and
perform sterile dressing changes within their scope. Assessment, planning, and evaluation remain
RN responsibilities (ATEJ).
Q2. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
B. Urine output 20 mL/hour [CORRECT]
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because urine output below 30 mL/hour indicates renal insufficiency,
increasing risk of hyperkalemia from IV potassium. Priority is reporting inadequate output before
continuing infusion.
Q3. A client with active measles is admitted. Which precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne [CORRECT]
B. Droplet
C. Contact
D. Standard only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because measles requires airborne precautions with negative-pressure room
and N95 respirator. This matches CDC transmission-based precautions.
, Q4. A nurse is interpreting an arterial blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, HCO₃ 24 mEq/L.
Which acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis [CORRECT]
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because low pH with elevated PaCO₂ and normal HCO₃ indicates respiratory
acidosis. This matches ABG interpretation.
Q5. A client's IV site is cool, swollen, and blanched. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration [CORRECT]
C. Infection
D. Air embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because coolness, swelling, and blanching indicate infiltration. This matches
IV assessment.
Q6. A nurse is preparing to witness informed consent. The client states, "I don't really understand
what the doctor said." Which action should the nurse take?
A. Witness the signature and proceed
B. Explain the procedure and have the client sign
C. Hold the consent and notify the provider [CORRECT]
D. Ask the family to explain the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the RN must verify understanding before witnessing consent. If the
client is confused, the provider must return to explain.
| Brand New
75 TESTED ITEMS |15 UNSCORED
Questions & Answers with Expert Rationales
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
, HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals Exam – Original Exam
Q1. A registered nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks should the RN delegate to the LPN? Select
all that apply.
A. Administer oral medications to stable clients [CORRECT]
B. Perform the initial admission assessment
C. Monitor a stable client's vital signs [CORRECT]
D. Develop the client's plan of care
E. Perform sterile dressing changes on a stable wound [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: Correct because LPNs can administer oral medications, monitor stable clients, and
perform sterile dressing changes within their scope. Assessment, planning, and evaluation remain
RN responsibilities (ATEJ).
Q2. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
B. Urine output 20 mL/hour [CORRECT]
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because urine output below 30 mL/hour indicates renal insufficiency,
increasing risk of hyperkalemia from IV potassium. Priority is reporting inadequate output before
continuing infusion.
Q3. A client with active measles is admitted. Which precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne [CORRECT]
B. Droplet
C. Contact
D. Standard only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because measles requires airborne precautions with negative-pressure room
and N95 respirator. This matches CDC transmission-based precautions.
, Q4. A nurse is interpreting an arterial blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, HCO₃ 24 mEq/L.
Which acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis [CORRECT]
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because low pH with elevated PaCO₂ and normal HCO₃ indicates respiratory
acidosis. This matches ABG interpretation.
Q5. A client's IV site is cool, swollen, and blanched. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration [CORRECT]
C. Infection
D. Air embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because coolness, swelling, and blanching indicate infiltration. This matches
IV assessment.
Q6. A nurse is preparing to witness informed consent. The client states, "I don't really understand
what the doctor said." Which action should the nurse take?
A. Witness the signature and proceed
B. Explain the procedure and have the client sign
C. Hold the consent and notify the provider [CORRECT]
D. Ask the family to explain the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the RN must verify understanding before witnessing consent. If the
client is confused, the provider must return to explain.
