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Nr 283 Pathophysiology Exam 2 Review: 250+ Exam Questions With Correct Answers And Rationales | (Chamberlain)

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This comprehensive study guide for NR 283 Pathophysiology Exam 2 contains over 250 real exam questions with verified correct answers and detailed rationales. Designed for Chamberlain University nursing students, this resource covers all core exam domains: cellular adaptation and injury, inflammation and immunity, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base regulation, cardiovascular pathophysiology, respiratory disorders, hematologic alterations, renal dysfunction, endocrine disorders, and gastrointestinal pathophysiology. Each question is formatted in a multiple-choice style with bolded questions and italicized answers/rationales for easy studying. Perfect for the 2026/2027 academic year, this guide helps you master high-yield concepts and pass your exam with confidence.

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NR 283 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2
REVIEW: 250+ EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES
| (CHAMBERLAIN)

SECTION 1: CELLULAR ADAPTATION, INJURY & GENETICS
1. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which cellular adaptation BEST explains this finding?
A) Atrophy
B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Metaplasia

Answer: B. Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size due to increased workload,
as seen in pressure overload from hypertension. Atrophy is decreased cell size;
hyperplasia is increased cell number; metaplasia is one cell type replacing another.

2. A 55-year-old with chronic hepatitis develops cirrhosis. The liver shows
regenerative nodules and fibrosis. This is an example of:
A) Atrophy
B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Dysplasia

Answer: C. Rationale: Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. In cirrhosis,
hepatocytes undergo hyperplasia (regenerative nodules) in response to injury.
Dysplasia is abnormal cell growth (precancerous).

3. A long-term smoker develops squamous cell metaplasia in the bronchi. What
is metaplasia?
A) Reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another
B) Irreversible loss of cell differentiation
C) Increase in cell number
D) Programmed cell death

Answer: A. Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type
by another, usually as an adaptive response to chronic irritation or injury.

,4. A patient has been diagnosed with a condition that triggers premature,
programmed cellular suicide in specific healthy tissues. What is the medical
term for this programmed cell death?
A) Liquefactive necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Apoptosis
D) Infarction

Answer: C. Rationale: Apoptosis is a highly regulated, distinct process of programmed
cell death designed to eliminate unwanted or damaged cells without triggering
inflammation. Necrosis causes inflammation; infarction is tissue death due to ischemia.

5. A child is diagnosed with Cystic Fibrosis. Both parents are asymptomatic
carriers. What is the pattern of genetic inheritance?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive

Answer: B. Rationale: Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning an
individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to
manifest the disease. Both parents are carriers (heterozygous) and asymptomatic.

6. A genetic screening reveals that a fetus has a chromosomal makeup of 47,
XY, +21. Which clinical condition will this child have at birth?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Marfan syndrome

Answer: C. Rationale: Down syndrome is caused by Trisomy 21, which is the presence of
a third copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes.

7. A female patient presents with short stature, a webbed neck, and a lack of
secondary sexual characteristics. A karyotype reveals a 45, XO chromosome
configuration. Which condition is present?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Huntington's disease
D) Down syndrome

Answer: A. Rationale: Turner syndrome is caused by a monosomy X (45, XO)
chromosomal configuration, leading to short stature, webbed neck, and lack of
secondary sexual characteristics.

,8. During an ischemic event, a lack of oxygen leads to a decrease in cellular ATP
production. Which immediate consequence occurs within the cell?
A) Shrinkage of the nucleus
B) Failure of the sodium-potassium pump, leading to cellular swelling
C) Decreased intracellular calcium levels
D) Increased intracellular pH

Answer: B. Rationale: Decreased ATP causes the Na+/K+ ATPase pump to fail. Sodium
accumulates inside the cell, pulling water in by osmosis, which results in acute cellular
swelling.

9. A decrease in the size of a leg after being in a cast for 6 weeks indicates
which adaptive cellular change?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Atrophy
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia

Answer: B. Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in the size of cells, leading to reduced tissue
mass. Disuse atrophy occurs when a muscle is not used, such as during immobilization
in a cast.

10. Which statement is TRUE regarding cellular changes due to aging?
A) The cellular changes are reversible
B) DNA becomes less susceptible to injurious stimuli
C) The cellular changes proceed slowly and in small increments
D) Lipid, calcium, and plasma proteins are less likely to accumulate

Answer: C. Rationale: Cellular aging changes proceed slowly and in small increments,
including accumulation of lipids, calcium, and plasma proteins.

11. A patient with acute pancreatitis develops soap-like white deposits in the
abdomen. This is:
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis

Answer: D. Rationale: Fat necrosis occurs in acute pancreatitis when pancreatic
enzymes (lipase) digest fat, releasing fatty acids that bind calcium (saponification).

12. Which term best defines the death rate in a population?
A) Mortality
B) Prevalence

, C) Incidence
D) Morbidity

Answer: A. Rationale: Mortality refers to the death rate in a population, while
prevalence and incidence refer to existing and new cases, respectively.




SECTION 2: INFLAMMATION & IMMUNITY
13. What is the correct order of the inflammatory response?
A) Vasodilation → increased permeability → chemotaxis → tissue repair
B) Tissue repair → vasodilation → increased permeability → chemotaxis
C) Chemotaxis → vasodilation → increased permeability → tissue repair
D) Increased permeability → vasodilation → chemotaxis → tissue repair

Answer: A. Rationale: Inflammation begins with vasodilation (causing redness and
heat), followed by increased vascular permeability (leading to swelling), then
chemotaxis (WBC migration), and finally tissue repair.

14. Which laboratory finding indicates a bacterial infection?
A) Leukopenia
B) Elevated neutrophils (neutrophilia)
C) Low CRP
D) Low ESR

Answer: B. Rationale: Elevated neutrophils (neutrophilia) are a classic sign of bacterial
infection.

15. What is the primary role of helper T cells (CD4+)?
A) Kill infected cells directly
B) Produce antibodies
C) Activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells
D) Phagocytose pathogens

Answer: C. Rationale: Helper T cells (CD4+) activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells to
coordinate the immune response.

16. Which type of immunity is provided by breastfeeding?
A) Active natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity

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Subido en
13 de octubre de 2026
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2026/2027
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