ACLS PROVIDER EXAM – VERSION C – VERIFIED ANSWERS – A+ GRADED – 100% CORRECT –
2025/2026 EDITION QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
High-Quality BLS and CPR Fundamentals
Rhythm Recognition and ECG Interpretation
Cardiac Arrest Algorithms (VF/pVT, PEA/Asystole)
Bradycardia and Tachycardia Management
ACLS Pharmacology and Medication Administration
Airway Management and Ventilation
Post–Cardiac Arrest Care
Acute Coronary Syndromes and Stroke
High-Performance Teams and Resuscitation Dynamics
Ethical, Legal, and Quality Improvement Considerations
Introduction
The ACLS Provider examination assesses the knowledge and clinical decision-making skills required to
manage adult patients in cardiopulmonary arrest and other life-threatening cardiovascular emergencies.
This examination evaluates competency in high-quality CPR, rhythm recognition, algorithm application,
pharmacological interventions, airway management, and post–cardiac arrest care. The test employs
multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that simulate real-world resuscitation events. Emphasis is
placed on team dynamics, closed-loop communication, rapid intervention, and evidence-based practice
consistent with current resuscitation guidelines. Candidates must demonstrate the ability to prioritize
interventions, recognize reversible causes, and coordinate interdisciplinary care to optimize patient
survival and neurological outcomes.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 58-year-old male collapses in the hospital cafeteria. You arrive to find him unresponsive, not
breathing, and pulseless. The initial rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. After delivering the first shock,
what is the immediate next step?
A. Check for a pulse to assess for return of spontaneous circulation
B. Resume high-quality CPR immediately, beginning with compressions
C. Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV push
D. Analyze the rhythm again to determine if another shock is needed
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 RATIONALE: After any shock delivery in cardiac arrest, rescuers must resume CPR immediately,
starting with chest compressions, without checking for a pulse. The 2-minute CPR cycle allows for
coronary perfusion and reduces no-flow time.
2. During CPR on an adult patient, which compression depth is consistent with current AHA
guidelines?
A. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm) but not more than 2 inches (5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
C. At least 2.5 inches (6.5 cm) but not more than 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. Exactly 2 inches (5 cm) with no upper limit specified
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: The AHA ACLS Provider Manual specifies adult compression depth of at least 2 inches
(5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm). This range ensures adequate cardiac output while
minimizing risk of injury.
3. You are leading a code team during cardiac arrest. The compressor has been performing
compressions for 2 minutes. What is the recommended compression rate per minute?
A. At least 80 compressions per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute
C. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
D. As fast as possible to maximize cardiac output
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: AHA guidelines specify a compression rate of 100–120 per minute. Rates below
100/min compromise perfusion, while rates above 120/min reduce compression depth and coronary
perfusion pressure due to incomplete chest recoil.
4. During resuscitation of a 45-year-old female in cardiac arrest, you note the end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2)
reading is 8 mmHg despite what appears to be adequate compressions. What does this finding
most likely indicate?
A. Return of spontaneous circulation has occurred
B. The patient is being hyperventilated
C. Compression depth or quality is insufficient
D. The capnography equipment is malfunctioning
🟢 Correct answer: C
,🔴 RATIONALE: During CPR, EtCO2 less than 10 mmHg indicates poor compression quality or depth,
as adequate perfusion generates CO2 that is exhaled. An EtCO2 of 8 mmHg signals the need to
improve compression quality.
5. A patient in cardiac arrest has an advanced airway in place. How frequently should ventilations
be delivered?
A. 1 breath every 2 seconds
B. 1 breath every 4 seconds
C. 1 breath every 6 seconds
D. 2 breaths every 10 seconds
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Once an advanced airway is placed during cardiac arrest, ventilations should be
delivered at 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute) without pausing compressions. This rate
avoids hyperventilation.
6. Which of the following is the most common reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Hypovolemia
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hyperkalemia
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypovolemia is the most common reversible cause of PEA. It is often corrected with
rapid fluid resuscitation. Hypoxia is also a common cause alongside hypovolemia.
7. A patient is in cardiac arrest with a rhythm of asystole. Which of the following is the correct initial
intervention?
A. Defibrillate at 200 joules
B. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV push
C. Begin high-quality CPR and administer epinephrine
D. Perform synchronized cardioversion
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm. Treatment consists of high-quality CPR and
epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes, along with identification and treatment of reversible
, causes.
8. When should epinephrine be administered in the VF/pVT cardiac arrest algorithm?
A. Immediately after the first shock
B. After the second shock
C. After the third shock
D. Before the first shock
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: In the VF/pVT algorithm, epinephrine is administered after the second shock. The first
shock is delivered as soon as the rhythm is identified, and CPR is resumed immediately after each
shock.
9. A patient with symptomatic bradycardia has a heart rate of 42 bpm and is hypotensive. What is
the first-line medication?
A. Epinephrine 1 mg IV push
B. Atropine 1 mg IV
C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push
D. Amiodarone 150 mg IV
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Atropine 1 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia. It may be
repeated every 3–5 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 mg. If ineffective, pacing or dopamine/epinephrine
infusion should be considered.
10. Which of the following rhythms is shockable?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless electrical activity
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus bradycardia
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm. Defibrillation is the primary
treatment. Pulseless VT is also shockable. Asystole and PEA are non-shockable.
2025/2026 EDITION QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
High-Quality BLS and CPR Fundamentals
Rhythm Recognition and ECG Interpretation
Cardiac Arrest Algorithms (VF/pVT, PEA/Asystole)
Bradycardia and Tachycardia Management
ACLS Pharmacology and Medication Administration
Airway Management and Ventilation
Post–Cardiac Arrest Care
Acute Coronary Syndromes and Stroke
High-Performance Teams and Resuscitation Dynamics
Ethical, Legal, and Quality Improvement Considerations
Introduction
The ACLS Provider examination assesses the knowledge and clinical decision-making skills required to
manage adult patients in cardiopulmonary arrest and other life-threatening cardiovascular emergencies.
This examination evaluates competency in high-quality CPR, rhythm recognition, algorithm application,
pharmacological interventions, airway management, and post–cardiac arrest care. The test employs
multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that simulate real-world resuscitation events. Emphasis is
placed on team dynamics, closed-loop communication, rapid intervention, and evidence-based practice
consistent with current resuscitation guidelines. Candidates must demonstrate the ability to prioritize
interventions, recognize reversible causes, and coordinate interdisciplinary care to optimize patient
survival and neurological outcomes.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 58-year-old male collapses in the hospital cafeteria. You arrive to find him unresponsive, not
breathing, and pulseless. The initial rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. After delivering the first shock,
what is the immediate next step?
A. Check for a pulse to assess for return of spontaneous circulation
B. Resume high-quality CPR immediately, beginning with compressions
C. Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV push
D. Analyze the rhythm again to determine if another shock is needed
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 RATIONALE: After any shock delivery in cardiac arrest, rescuers must resume CPR immediately,
starting with chest compressions, without checking for a pulse. The 2-minute CPR cycle allows for
coronary perfusion and reduces no-flow time.
2. During CPR on an adult patient, which compression depth is consistent with current AHA
guidelines?
A. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm) but not more than 2 inches (5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
C. At least 2.5 inches (6.5 cm) but not more than 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. Exactly 2 inches (5 cm) with no upper limit specified
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: The AHA ACLS Provider Manual specifies adult compression depth of at least 2 inches
(5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm). This range ensures adequate cardiac output while
minimizing risk of injury.
3. You are leading a code team during cardiac arrest. The compressor has been performing
compressions for 2 minutes. What is the recommended compression rate per minute?
A. At least 80 compressions per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute
C. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
D. As fast as possible to maximize cardiac output
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: AHA guidelines specify a compression rate of 100–120 per minute. Rates below
100/min compromise perfusion, while rates above 120/min reduce compression depth and coronary
perfusion pressure due to incomplete chest recoil.
4. During resuscitation of a 45-year-old female in cardiac arrest, you note the end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2)
reading is 8 mmHg despite what appears to be adequate compressions. What does this finding
most likely indicate?
A. Return of spontaneous circulation has occurred
B. The patient is being hyperventilated
C. Compression depth or quality is insufficient
D. The capnography equipment is malfunctioning
🟢 Correct answer: C
,🔴 RATIONALE: During CPR, EtCO2 less than 10 mmHg indicates poor compression quality or depth,
as adequate perfusion generates CO2 that is exhaled. An EtCO2 of 8 mmHg signals the need to
improve compression quality.
5. A patient in cardiac arrest has an advanced airway in place. How frequently should ventilations
be delivered?
A. 1 breath every 2 seconds
B. 1 breath every 4 seconds
C. 1 breath every 6 seconds
D. 2 breaths every 10 seconds
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Once an advanced airway is placed during cardiac arrest, ventilations should be
delivered at 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute) without pausing compressions. This rate
avoids hyperventilation.
6. Which of the following is the most common reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Hypovolemia
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hyperkalemia
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypovolemia is the most common reversible cause of PEA. It is often corrected with
rapid fluid resuscitation. Hypoxia is also a common cause alongside hypovolemia.
7. A patient is in cardiac arrest with a rhythm of asystole. Which of the following is the correct initial
intervention?
A. Defibrillate at 200 joules
B. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV push
C. Begin high-quality CPR and administer epinephrine
D. Perform synchronized cardioversion
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm. Treatment consists of high-quality CPR and
epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes, along with identification and treatment of reversible
, causes.
8. When should epinephrine be administered in the VF/pVT cardiac arrest algorithm?
A. Immediately after the first shock
B. After the second shock
C. After the third shock
D. Before the first shock
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: In the VF/pVT algorithm, epinephrine is administered after the second shock. The first
shock is delivered as soon as the rhythm is identified, and CPR is resumed immediately after each
shock.
9. A patient with symptomatic bradycardia has a heart rate of 42 bpm and is hypotensive. What is
the first-line medication?
A. Epinephrine 1 mg IV push
B. Atropine 1 mg IV
C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push
D. Amiodarone 150 mg IV
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Atropine 1 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia. It may be
repeated every 3–5 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 mg. If ineffective, pacing or dopamine/epinephrine
infusion should be considered.
10. Which of the following rhythms is shockable?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless electrical activity
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus bradycardia
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm. Defibrillation is the primary
treatment. Pulseless VT is also shockable. Asystole and PEA are non-shockable.
