NCLEX-RN Comprehensive Practice
Exam 007 100 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
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1. A nurse is assessing a client with hypovolemic shock. Which finding requires the nurse's
immediate attention?
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. Heart rate of 112/min
C. Urine output of 10 mL/hr
D. Blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg
Answer: Urine output of 10 mL/hr
Rationale: Urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion and worsening
shock. It is a priority indicator of decreased circulating volume and organ perfusion.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving IV furosemide. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss, increasing
the risk of dysrhythmias.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion. What
should the nurse do first?
,A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check the blood glucose level
C. Encourage exercise
D. Administer glucagon immediately
Answer: Check the blood glucose level
Rationale: The symptoms suggest hypoglycemia. The nurse should verify the glucose level
promptly and then treat according to the result and the client's ability to swallow.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client with increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Decreasing level of consciousness
D. Photophobia
Answer: Decreasing level of consciousness
Rationale: A declining level of consciousness is an early and important indicator of worsening
intracranial pressure and possible brain herniation.
5. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer the next dose as prescribed
B. Hold warfarin and notify the provider
C. Encourage foods high in vitamin K immediately
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: Hold warfarin and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR of 5.8 represents excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
The medication should be held and the provider notified for further management.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which oxygen
prescription is most appropriate?
A. 100% oxygen by nonrebreather mask continuously
B. Oxygen titrated to maintain the prescribed target saturation
C. Oxygen at the highest possible flow rate
D. No oxygen because it suppresses respiratory drive
Answer: Oxygen titrated to maintain the prescribed target saturation
, Rationale: Oxygen should be administered carefully and titrated to the prescribed target,
commonly around 88%–92% for many clients with COPD who are at risk for hypercapnia.
7. Which finding is expected in a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: Kussmaul respirations
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that compensate for the
metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
8. A client with a suspected stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action is appropriate?
A. Give water to test swallowing
B. Provide oral medications with applesauce
C. Keep the client NPO until swallowing is evaluated
D. Place food on the affected side of the mouth
Answer: Keep the client NPO until swallowing is evaluated
Rationale: Dysphagia after a stroke increases the risk of aspiration. Oral intake should be
withheld until a swallowing assessment is completed.
9. A nurse is teaching a client prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the client
report immediately?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Facial or tongue swelling
D. Increased appetite
Answer: Facial or tongue swelling
Rationale: Facial, tongue, or throat swelling may indicate angioedema, a potentially life-
threatening reaction to an ACE inhibitor.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia and a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F)
B. A postoperative client reporting pain of 7/10
C. A client with asthma who has difficulty speaking in full sentences
D. A client with diabetes requesting a snack
Exam 007 100 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
1. A nurse is assessing a client with hypovolemic shock. Which finding requires the nurse's
immediate attention?
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. Heart rate of 112/min
C. Urine output of 10 mL/hr
D. Blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg
Answer: Urine output of 10 mL/hr
Rationale: Urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion and worsening
shock. It is a priority indicator of decreased circulating volume and organ perfusion.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving IV furosemide. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss, increasing
the risk of dysrhythmias.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion. What
should the nurse do first?
,A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check the blood glucose level
C. Encourage exercise
D. Administer glucagon immediately
Answer: Check the blood glucose level
Rationale: The symptoms suggest hypoglycemia. The nurse should verify the glucose level
promptly and then treat according to the result and the client's ability to swallow.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client with increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Decreasing level of consciousness
D. Photophobia
Answer: Decreasing level of consciousness
Rationale: A declining level of consciousness is an early and important indicator of worsening
intracranial pressure and possible brain herniation.
5. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer the next dose as prescribed
B. Hold warfarin and notify the provider
C. Encourage foods high in vitamin K immediately
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: Hold warfarin and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR of 5.8 represents excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
The medication should be held and the provider notified for further management.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which oxygen
prescription is most appropriate?
A. 100% oxygen by nonrebreather mask continuously
B. Oxygen titrated to maintain the prescribed target saturation
C. Oxygen at the highest possible flow rate
D. No oxygen because it suppresses respiratory drive
Answer: Oxygen titrated to maintain the prescribed target saturation
, Rationale: Oxygen should be administered carefully and titrated to the prescribed target,
commonly around 88%–92% for many clients with COPD who are at risk for hypercapnia.
7. Which finding is expected in a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: Kussmaul respirations
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that compensate for the
metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
8. A client with a suspected stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action is appropriate?
A. Give water to test swallowing
B. Provide oral medications with applesauce
C. Keep the client NPO until swallowing is evaluated
D. Place food on the affected side of the mouth
Answer: Keep the client NPO until swallowing is evaluated
Rationale: Dysphagia after a stroke increases the risk of aspiration. Oral intake should be
withheld until a swallowing assessment is completed.
9. A nurse is teaching a client prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the client
report immediately?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Facial or tongue swelling
D. Increased appetite
Answer: Facial or tongue swelling
Rationale: Facial, tongue, or throat swelling may indicate angioedema, a potentially life-
threatening reaction to an ACE inhibitor.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia and a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F)
B. A postoperative client reporting pain of 7/10
C. A client with asthma who has difficulty speaking in full sentences
D. A client with diabetes requesting a snack
