NCLEX RN Pharmacological and
Parenteral Therapies Exam 2 100
Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2026 Q&A Instant Download Pdf
Q1. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding should the nurse report before
administering the medication?
A. Apical pulse of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: Apical pulse of 58/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin
and notify the provider when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min.
Q2. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Encourage foods high in vitamin K
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Administer aspirin for prevention of thrombosis
Answer: Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR of 5.8 indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased
bleeding risk. The dose should be withheld and the provider notified for
further management.
,Q3. A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at the IV site. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue the infusion
D. Flush the IV rapidly
Answer: Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
Rationale: Potassium chloride is highly irritating to tissues. Burning may
indicate infiltration or phlebitis, so the infusion should be stopped and the IV
site assessed.
Q4. A client prescribed lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue.
Which action is the priority?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Discontinue the medication and assess the airway
D. Encourage oral fluids
Answer: Discontinue the medication and assess the airway
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. Airway assessment and immediate intervention are priorities.
Q5. A nurse is teaching a client who takes levothyroxine. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with my evening meal."
B. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning."
C. "I should stop the medication when I feel better."
D. "I will take calcium supplements at the same time."
Answer: "I will take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning."
,Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, usually 30–
60 minutes before breakfast. Calcium and iron can interfere with absorption.
Q6. A client receiving heparin has a platelet count that decreases significantly.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation caused by vitamin K
Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Rationale: A significant platelet decrease during heparin therapy may
indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which can cause serious
thrombosis.
Q7. Which medication reverses the effects of opioid toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced
respiratory and central nervous system depression.
Q8. A client receiving morphine has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult
to arouse. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer another dose of morphine
B. Hold morphine and administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Encourage the client to drink water
D. Place the client in a dark room
, Answer: Hold morphine and administer naloxone as prescribed
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression is a life-threatening opioid adverse
effect. Morphine should be withheld and naloxone administered according to
protocol or prescription.
Q9. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client receiving
furosemide?
A. Potassium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Platelet count
D. Amylase
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
loss, increasing the risk for dysrhythmias.
Q10. A client taking spironolactone should be taught to avoid excessive intake
of which food?
A. Apples
B. White rice
C. Bananas
D. Bread
Answer: Bananas
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Excessive intake of
potassium-rich foods can increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Q11. A client taking metformin is scheduled for a procedure involving iodinated
contrast. What should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the metformin dose
B. Holding metformin as directed around the contrast procedure
Parenteral Therapies Exam 2 100
Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2026 Q&A Instant Download Pdf
Q1. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding should the nurse report before
administering the medication?
A. Apical pulse of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: Apical pulse of 58/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin
and notify the provider when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min.
Q2. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the scheduled dose
B. Encourage foods high in vitamin K
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Administer aspirin for prevention of thrombosis
Answer: Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR of 5.8 indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased
bleeding risk. The dose should be withheld and the provider notified for
further management.
,Q3. A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at the IV site. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue the infusion
D. Flush the IV rapidly
Answer: Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
Rationale: Potassium chloride is highly irritating to tissues. Burning may
indicate infiltration or phlebitis, so the infusion should be stopped and the IV
site assessed.
Q4. A client prescribed lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue.
Which action is the priority?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Discontinue the medication and assess the airway
D. Encourage oral fluids
Answer: Discontinue the medication and assess the airway
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. Airway assessment and immediate intervention are priorities.
Q5. A nurse is teaching a client who takes levothyroxine. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with my evening meal."
B. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning."
C. "I should stop the medication when I feel better."
D. "I will take calcium supplements at the same time."
Answer: "I will take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning."
,Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, usually 30–
60 minutes before breakfast. Calcium and iron can interfere with absorption.
Q6. A client receiving heparin has a platelet count that decreases significantly.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation caused by vitamin K
Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Rationale: A significant platelet decrease during heparin therapy may
indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which can cause serious
thrombosis.
Q7. Which medication reverses the effects of opioid toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced
respiratory and central nervous system depression.
Q8. A client receiving morphine has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult
to arouse. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer another dose of morphine
B. Hold morphine and administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Encourage the client to drink water
D. Place the client in a dark room
, Answer: Hold morphine and administer naloxone as prescribed
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression is a life-threatening opioid adverse
effect. Morphine should be withheld and naloxone administered according to
protocol or prescription.
Q9. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client receiving
furosemide?
A. Potassium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Platelet count
D. Amylase
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
loss, increasing the risk for dysrhythmias.
Q10. A client taking spironolactone should be taught to avoid excessive intake
of which food?
A. Apples
B. White rice
C. Bananas
D. Bread
Answer: Bananas
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Excessive intake of
potassium-rich foods can increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Q11. A client taking metformin is scheduled for a procedure involving iodinated
contrast. What should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the metformin dose
B. Holding metformin as directed around the contrast procedure
