(2026) Actual Q&A PDF
1. A patient is admitted to the detoxification unit experiencing tremors, diaphoresis, and visual
hallucinations approximately 18 hours after their last drink. What is the nurse's priority
intervention for this patient?
A) Administer haloperidol for the hallucinations
B) Place the patient in a high-stimulation environment
C) Monitor for seizures and administer benzodiazepines as prescribed
D) Restrict fluids to prevent water intoxication
Correct Answer: Monitor for seizures and administer benzodiazepines as prescribed
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal can progress to seizures or delirium tremens within the first 12-
24 hours. Benzodiazepines are the standard treatment for managing withdrawal symptoms and
preventing seizures. Haloperidol may be used for agitation but does not address the underlying
withdrawal process or seizure risk.
2. A patient prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse) reports flushing, nausea, and palpitations. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer naloxone immediately
B) Discontinue the disulfiram and start another medication
C) Assess for alcohol consumption and provide supportive care
D) Reassure the patient that these side effects are normal
Correct Answer: Assess for alcohol consumption and provide supportive care
Rationale: The symptoms described are classic signs of a disulfiram-alcohol reaction, which
occurs when a patient taking disulfiram consumes alcohol. The reaction can range from mild
,flushing to severe cardiovascular collapse. The nurse should assess for recent alcohol intake and
provide supportive care.
3. A nurse is teaching a patient about naltrexone for alcohol use disorder. Which statement by
the patient indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A) "It will make me sick if I drink alcohol."
B) "It reduces my cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol."
C) "It blocks the metabolism of alcohol in my liver."
D) "It increases the sedative effects of alcohol."
Correct Answer: "It reduces my cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol."
Rationale: Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that reduces cravings and the rewarding effects of
alcohol. It does not cause an aversive reaction (that is disulfiram). Acamprosate works to reduce
cravings through different mechanisms.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal. Which set of symptoms is
most consistent with this condition?
A) Sedation, respiratory depression, and constipation
B) Rhinorrhea, yawning, and muscle aches
C) Fever, diaphoresis, and tremors
D) Agitation, tachycardia, and seizures
Correct Answer: Rhinorrhea, yawning, and muscle aches
Rationale: Opioid withdrawal symptoms include aches, rhinorrhea (runny nose), mood
dysphoria, yawning, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and sweating. The mnemonic "ARMY FINDS" helps
recall these symptoms. Sedation and respiratory depression are signs of opioid intoxication, not
withdrawal.
,5. A patient with a history of bulimia nervosa is being admitted. Which assessment finding is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Bradycardia and hypotension
B) Dental erosion and hypokalemia
C) Lanugo and amenorrhea
D) Parotid gland atrophy
Correct Answer: Dental erosion and hypokalemia
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by binge-purge cycles, often involving self-induced
vomiting. Vomiting causes acid erosion of tooth enamel and loss of potassium (hypokalemia),
leading to muscle weakness. Lanugo and amenorrhea are more consistent with anorexia
nervosa.
6. Which therapeutic approach is considered the first-line treatment for bulimia nervosa?
A) Psychopharmacology with SSRIs
B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
C) Family therapy
D) Nutritional counseling only
Correct Answer: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
Rationale: CBT is the first-line treatment for bulimia nervosa and addresses the binge-purge
cycle by helping patients identify and change maladaptive thoughts and behaviors. SSRIs may be
used as adjunctive therapy, but CBT remains the primary evidence-based treatment.
, 7. A patient with anorexia nervosa is being treated on an inpatient unit. Which nursing
intervention is most appropriate to support nutritional rehabilitation?
A) Allow the patient to choose their own meals
B) Provide high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently
C) Permit the patient to exercise between meals
D) Offer praise only when the patient gains weight
Correct Answer: Provide high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently
Rationale: The priority in anorexia nervosa is nutritional rehabilitation to restore weight and
stabilize the patient. Offering high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently is essential. Patients with
anorexia should not be allowed to control their own meals, exercise should be restricted, and
praise should be given for compliance and effort, not just weight gain.
8. A patient with binge eating disorder is discussing their condition with the nurse. Which
statement accurately describes this disorder?
A) "I binge eat and then purge to prevent weight gain."
B) "I have episodes of uncontrolled eating without compensatory behaviors."
C) "I severely restrict my food intake despite being underweight."
D) "I only binge eat when I am alone and feel ashamed."
Correct Answer: "I have episodes of uncontrolled eating without compensatory behaviors."
Rationale: Binge eating disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of uncontrolled eating of
large amounts of food without the compensatory behaviors (purging, fasting, excessive exercise)
seen in bulimia. Patients often experience distress and shame but do not purge.
9. A patient is admitted with a somatic symptom disorder. The nurse understands that the
primary characteristic of this disorder is: