Galen NSG 4800 Comp 1 Exam | Transition to Professional
Nursing Practice (2026) Q&A
1. Which nursing theorist developed the Self-Care Deficit Theory, which emphasizes the
patient's ability to perform self-care activities?
A) Sister Callista Roy
B) Dorothea Orem
C) Madeleine Leininger
D) Jean Watson
Correct Answer: Dorothea Orem
Rationale: Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory identifies when nursing is needed—when a patient
cannot meet their own self-care demands. Roy developed the Adaptation Model, Leininger
developed the Theory of Culture Care, and Watson developed the Theory of Human Caring. This
theory is foundational to professional nursing practice.
2. A nurse manager is implementing a shared governance model on a medical-surgical unit.
Which statement best describes the primary goal of this model?
A) To centralize decision-making authority with the nurse manager
B) To empower staff nurses to participate in decisions that affect their practice and patient care
C) To reduce the number of staff meetings required by policy
D) To enforce a top-down hierarchy to improve efficiency
Correct Answer: To empower staff nurses to participate in decisions that affect their practice
and patient care
Rationale: Shared governance is a professional practice model that gives nurses a voice in
clinical and administrative decisions, fostering autonomy, accountability, and collaboration. It
,aims to decentralize decision-making, not centralize it, and is not designed to reduce meetings
or enforce hierarchy.
3. What is the primary distinction between assault and battery in nursing practice?
A) Assault involves physical contact; battery involves a verbal threat
B) Assault is a verbal threat; battery is the actual harmful or offensive contact
C) Both are identical legal terms with no distinction
D) Assault requires intent to harm; battery does not
Correct Answer: Assault is a verbal threat; battery is the actual harmful or offensive contact
Rationale: Assault is defined as a verbal threat or attempt to cause harm, such as threatening to
hit a patient if they do not take medication. Battery is the actual physical contact that is harmful
or offensive. Understanding this distinction is critical for legal and ethical nursing practice.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient. According to standard practice, what is
the correct sequence for drawing up insulin from two vials?
A) Cloudy then clear
B) Clear then cloudy
C) It does not matter which is drawn first
D) Both types must be drawn into separate syringes
Correct Answer: Clear then cloudy
Rationale: The correct sequence is clear before cloudy, remembered by the mnemonic "RN":
clear = R, cloudy = N. The nurse injects air into the cloudy vial first, then into the clear vial, then
draws up the clear insulin, and finally draws up the cloudy insulin. This prevents contamination
of the clear vial.
,5. According to the VEAL CHOP mnemonic for interpreting fetal heart rate patterns, what does
variable deceleration indicate?
A) Head compression
B) Cord compression
C) Placental insufficiency
D) Fetal well-being
Correct Answer: Cord compression
Rationale: In the VEAL CHOP mnemonic, "V" stands for Variable decelerations, which indicate
"C" for Cord compression. "E" for Early decelerations indicates Head compression, "A" for
Accelerations indicates "O" for Okay (fetal well-being), and "L" for Late decelerations indicates
Placental insufficiency.
6. A nurse observes late decelerations on a fetal heart rate monitor. What is the most likely
underlying cause?
A) Head compression during descent
B) Umbilical cord around the fetal neck
C) Placental insufficiency
D) Maternal hyperventilation
Correct Answer: Placental insufficiency
Rationale: Late decelerations are associated with placental insufficiency, meaning the placenta
is not providing adequate oxygen exchange. This is a non-reassuring pattern that requires
immediate intervention, such as changing maternal position or administering oxygen.
, 7. What is the characteristic presentation of placenta previa?
A) Dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain
B) Bright red bleeding with no pain
C) Dark red bleeding with no pain
D) Bright red bleeding with severe abdominal pain
Correct Answer: Bright red bleeding with no pain
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with bright red, painless bleeding because the placenta is
growing over the cervical opening. Vaginal exams are contraindicated in this condition. This
distinguishes it from placental abruption, which typically involves painful bleeding.
8. Which finding is most consistent with placental abruption?
A) Bright red bleeding with no pain
B) Dark red or no visible bleeding with abdominal pain
C) Painless bleeding with uterine hypertonicity
D) Intermittent bleeding with fetal tachycardia
Correct Answer: Dark red or no visible bleeding with abdominal pain
Rationale: Placental abruption involves the placenta tearing away from the cervix, typically
presenting with dark red or concealed bleeding and significant abdominal pain. It is a medical
emergency that may require immediate delivery.
9. During Stage 1 of labor, what cervical dilation range defines the active phase?
A) 0 to 3 cm
B) 0 to 5 cm
Nursing Practice (2026) Q&A
1. Which nursing theorist developed the Self-Care Deficit Theory, which emphasizes the
patient's ability to perform self-care activities?
A) Sister Callista Roy
B) Dorothea Orem
C) Madeleine Leininger
D) Jean Watson
Correct Answer: Dorothea Orem
Rationale: Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory identifies when nursing is needed—when a patient
cannot meet their own self-care demands. Roy developed the Adaptation Model, Leininger
developed the Theory of Culture Care, and Watson developed the Theory of Human Caring. This
theory is foundational to professional nursing practice.
2. A nurse manager is implementing a shared governance model on a medical-surgical unit.
Which statement best describes the primary goal of this model?
A) To centralize decision-making authority with the nurse manager
B) To empower staff nurses to participate in decisions that affect their practice and patient care
C) To reduce the number of staff meetings required by policy
D) To enforce a top-down hierarchy to improve efficiency
Correct Answer: To empower staff nurses to participate in decisions that affect their practice
and patient care
Rationale: Shared governance is a professional practice model that gives nurses a voice in
clinical and administrative decisions, fostering autonomy, accountability, and collaboration. It
,aims to decentralize decision-making, not centralize it, and is not designed to reduce meetings
or enforce hierarchy.
3. What is the primary distinction between assault and battery in nursing practice?
A) Assault involves physical contact; battery involves a verbal threat
B) Assault is a verbal threat; battery is the actual harmful or offensive contact
C) Both are identical legal terms with no distinction
D) Assault requires intent to harm; battery does not
Correct Answer: Assault is a verbal threat; battery is the actual harmful or offensive contact
Rationale: Assault is defined as a verbal threat or attempt to cause harm, such as threatening to
hit a patient if they do not take medication. Battery is the actual physical contact that is harmful
or offensive. Understanding this distinction is critical for legal and ethical nursing practice.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient. According to standard practice, what is
the correct sequence for drawing up insulin from two vials?
A) Cloudy then clear
B) Clear then cloudy
C) It does not matter which is drawn first
D) Both types must be drawn into separate syringes
Correct Answer: Clear then cloudy
Rationale: The correct sequence is clear before cloudy, remembered by the mnemonic "RN":
clear = R, cloudy = N. The nurse injects air into the cloudy vial first, then into the clear vial, then
draws up the clear insulin, and finally draws up the cloudy insulin. This prevents contamination
of the clear vial.
,5. According to the VEAL CHOP mnemonic for interpreting fetal heart rate patterns, what does
variable deceleration indicate?
A) Head compression
B) Cord compression
C) Placental insufficiency
D) Fetal well-being
Correct Answer: Cord compression
Rationale: In the VEAL CHOP mnemonic, "V" stands for Variable decelerations, which indicate
"C" for Cord compression. "E" for Early decelerations indicates Head compression, "A" for
Accelerations indicates "O" for Okay (fetal well-being), and "L" for Late decelerations indicates
Placental insufficiency.
6. A nurse observes late decelerations on a fetal heart rate monitor. What is the most likely
underlying cause?
A) Head compression during descent
B) Umbilical cord around the fetal neck
C) Placental insufficiency
D) Maternal hyperventilation
Correct Answer: Placental insufficiency
Rationale: Late decelerations are associated with placental insufficiency, meaning the placenta
is not providing adequate oxygen exchange. This is a non-reassuring pattern that requires
immediate intervention, such as changing maternal position or administering oxygen.
, 7. What is the characteristic presentation of placenta previa?
A) Dark red bleeding with severe abdominal pain
B) Bright red bleeding with no pain
C) Dark red bleeding with no pain
D) Bright red bleeding with severe abdominal pain
Correct Answer: Bright red bleeding with no pain
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with bright red, painless bleeding because the placenta is
growing over the cervical opening. Vaginal exams are contraindicated in this condition. This
distinguishes it from placental abruption, which typically involves painful bleeding.
8. Which finding is most consistent with placental abruption?
A) Bright red bleeding with no pain
B) Dark red or no visible bleeding with abdominal pain
C) Painless bleeding with uterine hypertonicity
D) Intermittent bleeding with fetal tachycardia
Correct Answer: Dark red or no visible bleeding with abdominal pain
Rationale: Placental abruption involves the placenta tearing away from the cervix, typically
presenting with dark red or concealed bleeding and significant abdominal pain. It is a medical
emergency that may require immediate delivery.
9. During Stage 1 of labor, what cervical dilation range defines the active phase?
A) 0 to 3 cm
B) 0 to 5 cm
