NCLEX RN Pharmacology Test Bank 3 Actual
Exam VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS
A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures.
Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the
medication phenobarbital?
a. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before retiring to bed.
b. The medication will turn the color of my urine to a pink color.
c. I should not eat or drink anything for at least 2 hours before taking my
medicine.
d. In the event a seizure occurs in the middle of the day, I need to take an extra
dose of my medicine. - Correct Answera. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before
retiring to bed.
Rationale:
Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood
levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of the phenobarbital are
drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; it is best to take it before bedtime.
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,A client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis is prescribed oral metronidazole.
What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with the client while
taking this medication?
a. Vinegar or commercial product douches should be done daily.
b. Avoid direct sunlight exposure and use sunscreen product with SPF100.
c. The client's sexual partner(s) should also be treated.
d. Dairy products should be eliminated from the diet during treatment. - Correct
Answerc. The client's sexual partner(s) should also be treated.
Rationale:
Sexual intercourse is the route of spread for vaginal trichomoniasis and the sexual
partner(s) should be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection.
A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial
pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which
intervention should the practical nurse ensure that it has been done prior to the
administration of antibiotics?
a. Sputum specimen
b. Set of vital signs
c. Electrocardiogram
d. Glucometer check - Correct Answera. Sputum specimen
Rationale:
A culture and sensitivity of a sputum specimen should be done prior to the
initiation of the administration of antibiotics.
A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for
chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify
instructions for this client?
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,a. I will take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
b. I should take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity.
c. I need to replace nitroglycerin tablets every 3 to 6 months to maintain
freshness.
d. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it. - Correct
Answerd. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it.
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should
stop activity and rest. One tablet should be placed under the tongue
(sublingually), not chewed or swallowed. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes,
up to three doses. If pain relief not achieved after taking three pills, seek medical
attention immediately. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months.
Nitroglycerin pain relief should occur in 5 minutes and duration should last 30
minutes.
A client diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which medication
instruction should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce to this client?
a. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
b. Use sunscreen when outdoors.
c. Return for monthly urinalysis.
d. Brush and floss teeth daily. - Correct Answerd. Brush and floss teeth daily.
Rationale:
Brushing and flossing the teeth daily prevents gingival hyperplasia (gum disease)
that is common with long-term phenytoin therapy.
The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would
indicate a therapeutic response?
a. An increase in urine output
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, b. Two or three soft stools per day
c. Absence of nausea
d. Decreased serum potassium - Correct Answerb. Two or three soft stools per day
Rationale:
Lactulose is an ammonia detoxicant (hyperosmotic) laxative which prevents
absorption of ammonia in the colon by acidifying the stool. This causes the stool
to absorb more water, therefore softening the stool. Two to three stools per day
indicate that lactulose is performing as intended.
A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is taking nothing by
mouth (NPO) for surgery. The practical nurse (PN) anticipates which pre-op
prescription for this client's glucose management.
a. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
b. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
c. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
d. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale - Correct Answerd. Regular
insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Rationale:
Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood glucose levels (sliding scale) is
the best method to achieve control of the client's blood glucose while the client is
NPO.
The practical nurse (PN) administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a
client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client
at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
a. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
b. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
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