with Bold Italic Answers & Rationales – NBOME
Osteopathic Medical Knowledge Self-Assessment Prep
1. A 45-year-old male presents with chronic low back pain. On examination,
you find restricted motion of the L5 vertebral segment on flexion and
extension. The patient reports that the pain worsens with prolonged sitting.
Which of the following somatic dysfunctions is most consistent with these
findings?
○ A. Type I somatic dysfunction
○ B. Type II somatic dysfunction
○ C. Fryette's Type I mechanics
○ D. Neutral mechanics
Answer: B. Type II somatic dysfunction
Rationale: Fryette's Type II mechanics occur when the spine is in a non-
neutral position (flexion or extension), with dysfunction in a single vertebral
segment.
2. A patient presents with a diagnosis of acute bronchitis. The physician
performs lymphatic pump techniques to enhance immune function. Which of
the following best describes the physiological mechanism of the lymphatic
pump?
○ A. Increases lymphatic flow and enhances immune surveillance
○ B. Decreases lymphatic flow to reduce inflammation
○ C. Directly stimulates antibody production
○ D. Increases sympathetic tone to fight infection
Answer: A. Increases lymphatic flow and enhances immune surveillance
,Rationale: The lymphatic pump increases lymphatic flow through mechanical
compression and release, enhancing lymphatic circulation and immune
surveillance.
3. A patient presents with a diagnosis of tension headache. On examination,
you find restricted motion of the occipitoatlantal (OA) joint. The patient
reports pain with rotation and side bending. Which of the following is the
correct diagnosis for this somatic dysfunction?
○ A. Type I somatic dysfunction
○ B. Type II somatic dysfunction
○ C. Fryette's Type I mechanics
○ D. Neutral mechanics
Answer: B. Type II somatic dysfunction
Rationale: The occipitoatlantal joint allows for flexion, extension, and side
bending, and dysfunction here presents with rotation restriction, consistent
with a Type II somatic dysfunction.
4. A 30-year-old female presents with right-sided rib pain after a motor
vehicle accident. On examination, you find tenderness over the right 5th rib
with restricted motion on inspiration. The rib is positioned superiorly
compared to the left. Which of the following rib dysfunctions is most likely?
○ A. Inhalation rib dysfunction
○ B. Exhalation rib dysfunction
○ C. Bucket handle dysfunction
○ D. Pump handle dysfunction
Answer: A. Inhalation rib dysfunction
Rationale: Inhalation rib dysfunction occurs when the rib is stuck in an
elevated (superior) position and has restricted motion on exhalation.
,5. A patient presents with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). The physician performs thoracic inlet myofascial release to
improve respiratory function. Which of the following anatomical structures is
the primary target of this technique?
○ A. Scalene muscles
○ B. Pectoralis major
○ C. Thoracic inlet fascia and surrounding structures
○ D. Diaphragm
Answer: C. Thoracic inlet fascia and surrounding structures
Rationale: Thoracic inlet myofascial release targets the fascia and structures
of the thoracic inlet to relieve restrictions and improve respiratory
mechanics.
6. A 28-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe flank pain
radiating to the groin. He has a history of recurrent calcium oxalate kidney
stones. Which of the following is the most likely anatomical location of the
stone causing this pain?
○ A. Renal pelvis
○ B. Proximal ureter
○ C. Distal ureter
○ D. Bladder
Answer: C. Distal ureter
Rationale: Distal ureteral stones typically cause severe flank pain radiating to
the groin due to irritation of the ureteral wall.
, 7. A 65-year-old female presents with sudden onset of painless vision loss in
her right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a pale retina with a cherry-
red spot at the macula. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
○ A. Central retinal vein occlusion
○ B. Central retinal artery occlusion
○ C. Vitreous hemorrhage
○ D. Retinal detachment
Answer: B. Central retinal artery occlusion
Rationale: Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden painless
vision loss and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy.
8. A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with a barky cough and inspiratory
stridor. His symptoms worsen at night. Which of the following is the most
likely causative agent?
○ A. Respiratory syncytial virus
○ B. Parainfluenza virus
○ C. Influenza A virus
○ D. Adenovirus
Answer: B. Parainfluenza virus
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup, which
presents with a barky cough and inspiratory stridor.
9. A 55-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents with severe
epigastric pain radiating to his back. Labs show elevated lipase and amylase.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
○ A. Acute pancreatitis
○ B. Peptic ulcer disease