2025, 10:02 PM Week 2 Full Length Practice Exam: NR667 - FNP Capstone
Question 1
pts
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he is having difficulty walking great distances due to the
pain in his calves. The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is which of the following exams?
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive
way. Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion between upper and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress
tests are not used as a diagnostic tool for claudication or PAD.
Exercise stress test
https://cea.instructure.com/courses/250/quizzes/2672 1/75
, 2025, 10:02 PM Week 2 Full Length Practice Exam: NR667 - FNP Capstone
Correct answer
Question 2
pts
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
Grade 2 systolic dysfunction
Systolic heart failure
Grade 3 systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction
The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
Correct answer
Question 3
pts
A geriatric patient is being treated for recurrent deep vein thrombosis with warfarin, 5mg PO daily. The International Normalized Ratio
(INR) is 1.5. The nurse practitioner should:
Maintain the dose
Increase the dose
Hold the dose
Decrease the dose
The goal for DVT management is 2.0-3.0 and therefore the dose should be increased. Of note (and not addressed in the context of this
question), this patient should be bridged if they have an active thrombus as initiating warfarin without first bridging them may precipitate
development of worsening of the thrombotic burden before it gets smaller due to the immediate affect of inhibiting protein C and protein S,
which act as the body's natural anticoagulant. That is beyond the scope of this question, but very important to ask during the care of ANY
patient with a known thrombotic state. If they have an active clot, thrombus, or embolus, unless there is a very particular reason as to why
https://cea.instructure.com/courses/250/quizzes/2672 2/75
Question 1
pts
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he is having difficulty walking great distances due to the
pain in his calves. The most appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is which of the following exams?
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive
way. Bilateral popliteal blood pressures would not show discretion between upper and lower body if both equally low, and exercise stress
tests are not used as a diagnostic tool for claudication or PAD.
Exercise stress test
https://cea.instructure.com/courses/250/quizzes/2672 1/75
, 2025, 10:02 PM Week 2 Full Length Practice Exam: NR667 - FNP Capstone
Correct answer
Question 2
pts
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
Grade 2 systolic dysfunction
Systolic heart failure
Grade 3 systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction
The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
Correct answer
Question 3
pts
A geriatric patient is being treated for recurrent deep vein thrombosis with warfarin, 5mg PO daily. The International Normalized Ratio
(INR) is 1.5. The nurse practitioner should:
Maintain the dose
Increase the dose
Hold the dose
Decrease the dose
The goal for DVT management is 2.0-3.0 and therefore the dose should be increased. Of note (and not addressed in the context of this
question), this patient should be bridged if they have an active thrombus as initiating warfarin without first bridging them may precipitate
development of worsening of the thrombotic burden before it gets smaller due to the immediate affect of inhibiting protein C and protein S,
which act as the body's natural anticoagulant. That is beyond the scope of this question, but very important to ask during the care of ANY
patient with a known thrombotic state. If they have an active clot, thrombus, or embolus, unless there is a very particular reason as to why
https://cea.instructure.com/courses/250/quizzes/2672 2/75
