Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 15th Edition – Complete
Chapters Test Bank with Pharmacology
SECTION I: BASIC PRINCIPLES (Questions 1–35)
1. A nurse working in radiology administers iodine to a patient having a CT scan. A
nurse on the oncology unit administers chemotherapy to cancer patients. A public
health nurse administers an MMR vaccine to a child. Which branch of
pharmacology best describes the actions of all three nurses?
A) Pharmacoeconomics
B) Pharmacotherapeutics
C) Pharmacodynamics
D) Pharmacokinetics
Correct Answer: B) Pharmacotherapeutics
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics (clinical pharmacology) deals with the
uses of drugs to treat, prevent, and diagnose disease. The radiology nurse uses a
drug for diagnosis, the oncology nurse for treatment, and the public health nurse
for prevention. Pharmacoeconomics (A) involves cost analysis;
pharmacodynamics (C) is what the drug does to the body; pharmacokinetics (D) is
what the body does to the drug.
2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A) Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B) Bypass the hepatic circulation
C) Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D) Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
Correct Answer: C) Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have
little if any desired action
Rationale: First-pass effect refers to the rapid hepatic metabolism of a
drug after oral administration, which significantly reduces the amount of active
,drug reaching systemic circulation. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism often
require alternative routes (e.g., sublingual, IV) to achieve therapeutic effects.
3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the:
A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Bile and feces
D) Skin
Correct Answer: B) Lungs
Rationale: Volatile drugs (e.g., inhaled anesthetics) are primarily
eliminated through the lungs during exhalation. This route is particularly
important for gaseous and volatile anesthetic agents.
4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to
create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A) Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B) Are the reason for giving loading doses
C) Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D) Are most common in collagen tissues
Correct Answer: C) Increase the length of time a drug is available and
active
Rationale: Storage reservoirs (e.g., IM depot preparations) allow gradual
release of drug over time, extending the duration of action. They do not
guarantee target tissue delivery (A) and are not related to loading doses (B).
5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the
drug's:
A) Propensity to go to the target receptor
B) Biological half-life
,C) Pharmacodynamics
D) Safety and side effects
Correct Answer: B) Biological half-life
Rationale: Dosing intervals are primarily determined by a drug's biological
half-life (t½). Cephalexin has a half-life of approximately 1–2 hours, necessitating
dosing every 6–8 hours to maintain therapeutic levels.
6. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day's dosage be twice those of the
other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A) Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B) Requires four- to five-half-lives to attain
C) Is influenced by renal function
D) Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues
Correct Answer: A) Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
Rationale: A loading dose rapidly achieves therapeutic drug
concentrations, bypassing the time required to reach steady state (which takes 4–
5 half-lives). It is typically used when immediate therapeutic effects are needed.
7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of
a therapeutic effect is the:
A) Minimum adverse effect level
B) Peak of action
C) Onset of action
D) Therapeutic range
Correct Answer: C) Onset of action
Rationale: The onset of action is the time required for a drug to produce
its first therapeutic effect after administration. The peak of action (B) is the time
of maximum effect, and the therapeutic range (D) is the range of concentrations
providing safe and effective therapy.
, 8. Which statement by a participant demonstrates an accurate understanding of
pharmacodynamics?
A) "It describes how the body absorbs a drug."
B) "It describes what a drug does to the body."
C) "It describes how the body eliminates a drug."
D) "It describes the cost of a drug."
Correct Answer: B) "It describes what a drug does to the body."
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of a drug on the body,
including its mechanism of action and therapeutic and adverse effects. Option A
describes pharmacokinetics, specifically absorption. Option C describes
elimination (pharmacokinetics). Option D describes pharmacoeconomics.
9. A nurse is teaching a student about pharmacokinetics. Which process describes
the movement of a drug from the bloodstream into body tissues?
A) Absorption
B) Distribution
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
Correct Answer: B) Distribution
Rationale: Distribution refers to the movement of drugs from systemic
circulation into tissues and body fluids. Absorption (A) is movement into the
bloodstream. Metabolism (C) refers to chemical alteration, usually in the liver.
Excretion (D) is the removal of drug from the body.
10. Which factor most directly influences a drug's pharmacokinetic profile?
A) Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
B) Patient preference for medication administration
Chapters Test Bank with Pharmacology
SECTION I: BASIC PRINCIPLES (Questions 1–35)
1. A nurse working in radiology administers iodine to a patient having a CT scan. A
nurse on the oncology unit administers chemotherapy to cancer patients. A public
health nurse administers an MMR vaccine to a child. Which branch of
pharmacology best describes the actions of all three nurses?
A) Pharmacoeconomics
B) Pharmacotherapeutics
C) Pharmacodynamics
D) Pharmacokinetics
Correct Answer: B) Pharmacotherapeutics
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics (clinical pharmacology) deals with the
uses of drugs to treat, prevent, and diagnose disease. The radiology nurse uses a
drug for diagnosis, the oncology nurse for treatment, and the public health nurse
for prevention. Pharmacoeconomics (A) involves cost analysis;
pharmacodynamics (C) is what the drug does to the body; pharmacokinetics (D) is
what the body does to the drug.
2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A) Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B) Bypass the hepatic circulation
C) Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D) Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
Correct Answer: C) Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have
little if any desired action
Rationale: First-pass effect refers to the rapid hepatic metabolism of a
drug after oral administration, which significantly reduces the amount of active
,drug reaching systemic circulation. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism often
require alternative routes (e.g., sublingual, IV) to achieve therapeutic effects.
3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the:
A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Bile and feces
D) Skin
Correct Answer: B) Lungs
Rationale: Volatile drugs (e.g., inhaled anesthetics) are primarily
eliminated through the lungs during exhalation. This route is particularly
important for gaseous and volatile anesthetic agents.
4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to
create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A) Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B) Are the reason for giving loading doses
C) Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D) Are most common in collagen tissues
Correct Answer: C) Increase the length of time a drug is available and
active
Rationale: Storage reservoirs (e.g., IM depot preparations) allow gradual
release of drug over time, extending the duration of action. They do not
guarantee target tissue delivery (A) and are not related to loading doses (B).
5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the
drug's:
A) Propensity to go to the target receptor
B) Biological half-life
,C) Pharmacodynamics
D) Safety and side effects
Correct Answer: B) Biological half-life
Rationale: Dosing intervals are primarily determined by a drug's biological
half-life (t½). Cephalexin has a half-life of approximately 1–2 hours, necessitating
dosing every 6–8 hours to maintain therapeutic levels.
6. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day's dosage be twice those of the
other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A) Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B) Requires four- to five-half-lives to attain
C) Is influenced by renal function
D) Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues
Correct Answer: A) Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
Rationale: A loading dose rapidly achieves therapeutic drug
concentrations, bypassing the time required to reach steady state (which takes 4–
5 half-lives). It is typically used when immediate therapeutic effects are needed.
7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of
a therapeutic effect is the:
A) Minimum adverse effect level
B) Peak of action
C) Onset of action
D) Therapeutic range
Correct Answer: C) Onset of action
Rationale: The onset of action is the time required for a drug to produce
its first therapeutic effect after administration. The peak of action (B) is the time
of maximum effect, and the therapeutic range (D) is the range of concentrations
providing safe and effective therapy.
, 8. Which statement by a participant demonstrates an accurate understanding of
pharmacodynamics?
A) "It describes how the body absorbs a drug."
B) "It describes what a drug does to the body."
C) "It describes how the body eliminates a drug."
D) "It describes the cost of a drug."
Correct Answer: B) "It describes what a drug does to the body."
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of a drug on the body,
including its mechanism of action and therapeutic and adverse effects. Option A
describes pharmacokinetics, specifically absorption. Option C describes
elimination (pharmacokinetics). Option D describes pharmacoeconomics.
9. A nurse is teaching a student about pharmacokinetics. Which process describes
the movement of a drug from the bloodstream into body tissues?
A) Absorption
B) Distribution
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
Correct Answer: B) Distribution
Rationale: Distribution refers to the movement of drugs from systemic
circulation into tissues and body fluids. Absorption (A) is movement into the
bloodstream. Metabolism (C) refers to chemical alteration, usually in the liver.
Excretion (D) is the removal of drug from the body.
10. Which factor most directly influences a drug's pharmacokinetic profile?
A) Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
B) Patient preference for medication administration
