WGU D236 Patho Readiness Assessment 2026/2027. – 100% Complete Exam Questions and Answers Already Graded A+. Latest Verified Exam Update.

WGU D236 Patho Readiness Assessment 2026/2027. – 100% Complete Exam Questions and Answers Already Graded A+. Latest Verified Exam Update. Question 1 What is the most common indication for genetic counselling? • A. Maternal Age • B. Drug exposure during the first trimester • C. Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein • D. History of previous still birth Correct Answer: A. Maternal Age Rationale: Advanced maternal age is the most common indication for genetic counseling due to increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities. Question 2 The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to: • A. Assess for the possibility of twins • B. Determine bilirubin level • C. Perform genetic studies • D. Assess L/S ratio Correct Answer: C. Perform genetic studies Rationale: This woman's age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome. Question 3 In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected? • A. Each cell has only one X chromosome • B. Some cells have two X chromosomes, while other cells have only one. • C. Each cell has two X chromosomes, but part of the chromosome is missing. • D. Each cell has an extra X chromosome. Correct Answer: A. Each cell has only one X chromosome Rationale: 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell. Question 4 The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the following genetic conditions? • A. Down Syndrome • B. Cri du chat • C. Charge syndrome • D. Duncan disease Correct Answer: B. Cri du chat Rationale: The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy. Question 5 When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that: • A. Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells. • B. Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with. • C. Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus. • D. Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization Correct Answer: A. Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells. Rationale: There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell mediated immune response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies. Question 6 A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state? • A. Coma • B. Persistent vegetative state • C. Minimally conscious • D. Locked-in syndrome Correct Answer: C. Minimally conscious Rationale: When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious state. Question 7 The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is scored between: • A. 13–15 • B. 12–13 • C. 9–12 • D. 3–8 Correct Answer: D. 3–8 (Note: The GCS is scored between 3 and 15) Rationale: The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best. Question 8 Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses? • A. Hallucinations • B. Compulsions • C. Obsessions • D. Delusions Correct Answer: C. Obsessions Rationale: Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. Question 9 During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior? • A. An inflated sense of self • B. Constant relation to future events • C. Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned • D. Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview Correct Answer: C. Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned Rationale: Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD. Question 10 The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia? • A. High energy with varying sleep patterns and non-stop conversation. • B. Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating. • C. Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care. • D. Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. Correct Answer: C. Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self care. Rationale: The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations. Question 11 The FNP is seeing a 10-year-old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has: • A. Acute otitis media • B. Acute otitis externa • C. Cholesteatoma • D. Chronic otitis media Correct Answer: A. Acute otitis media