2026/2027
CIC Certified in Infection Control
Exam Prep Guide 2026/2027:
Practice Tests, Quizzes, and Test
Bank Review
Question 1
An infection prevention committee is investigating an increase in healthcare-
associated infections after a hospital expanded its intensive care unit. Which finding
represents a medical intervention factor that could have increased infection risk?
A. Increased contact between patients and therapy animals
B. Extended use of indwelling urinary catheters
C. Older average age of admitted patients
D. Increased prevalence of malnutrition
Correct Answer: B. Extended use of indwelling urinary catheters
Rationale: Indwelling devices are medical intervention factors because their insertion
and continued use provide microorganisms with a route into normally sterile body
sites. Therapy-animal contact is an environmental factor. Advanced age and
malnutrition are anatomical or physiological host factors. Device necessity should be
assessed daily, and unnecessary devices should be removed promptly to reduce
infection risk.
Question 2
A long-term care facility reports an increase in gastrointestinal infections. Which
intervention addresses an environmental factor associated with infection
transmission?
A. Improving staff knowledge about invasive procedures
B. Screening residents for underlying malignancies
C. Reviewing the disinfectant used on shared surfaces
D. Reducing the duration of urinary catheterization
Correct Answer: C. Reviewing the disinfectant used on shared surfaces
Rationale: Disinfectant selection is an environmental intervention factor because the
product’s effectiveness influences the survival of microorganisms on surfaces. Staff
knowledge and catheter duration are medical intervention factors. Malignancy is a
host-related physiological factor. The facility should confirm that the disinfectant is
,2026/2027
appropriate for the suspected organism and is used at the correct concentration and
contact time.
Question 3
Which hospitalized patient has the greatest number of anatomical or physiological
risk factors for infection?
A. A healthy 25-year-old receiving short-term oxygen therapy
B. A 70-year-old patient with diabetes, malnutrition, and traumatic wounds
C. A 40-year-old patient examined by several consulting providers
D. A 35-year-old patient admitted to a unit with inadequate staffing
Correct Answer: B. A 70-year-old patient with diabetes, malnutrition, and
traumatic wounds
Rationale: Advanced age, preexisting disease, poor nutritional status, and trauma are
anatomical or physiological host factors that reduce resistance to infection. Multiple
examinations and inadequate staffing may increase risk, but they are medical or
institutional factors rather than inherent host characteristics. The older patient
therefore has several overlapping vulnerabilities that substantially increase infection
risk.
Question 4
A quality improvement team begins a DMAIC project to reduce central line-
associated bloodstream infections. Which activity belongs primarily to the Define
phase?
A. Calculating the current infection rate
B. Determining the project boundaries and affected patients
C. Identifying statistical causes of performance variation
D. Monitoring the revised process for sustained compliance
Correct Answer: B. Determining the project boundaries and affected patients
Rationale: The Define phase identifies customers, processes, project goals, and
boundaries. Calculating the baseline infection rate belongs to Measure. Identifying
causes of variation occurs during Analyze. Monitoring performance to prevent
regression is part of Control. A clearly defined project prevents scope expansion and
ensures that the team addresses the correct population and process.
Question 5
During a DMAIC initiative, the team reviews central line infection data and discovers
that most infections occur when dressing changes are delayed. Which DMAIC phase
is being performed?
,2026/2027
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Control
Correct Answer: C. Analyze
Rationale: The Analyze phase uses collected data to identify causes of variation,
performance gaps, and priorities for corrective action. Measure establishes current
performance but does not determine why the problem occurs. Define establishes the
project’s scope, and Control maintains improvements after implementation. Linking
delayed dressing changes to infections represents analysis of a likely contributing
cause.
Question 6
Which outcome best demonstrates that an infection surveillance program is
functioning effectively?
A. It records infections without evaluating patterns
B. It detects clusters and identifies associated risk factors
C. It replaces clinical judgment with surveillance definitions
D. It reports only infections required by reimbursement programs
Correct Answer: B. It detects clusters and identifies associated risk factors
Rationale: Effective surveillance detects infections and injuries, identifies trends and
risk factors, recognizes outbreaks or clusters, and evaluates the infection prevention
program. Merely recording cases does not support prevention. Surveillance
definitions promote consistency but do not replace clinical care. Restricting
surveillance to reimbursable conditions may cause important risks and outbreaks to be
missed.
Question 7
On April 1, a rehabilitation facility has 12 residents with influenza among 240
residents. What is the point prevalence of influenza on that date?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 12%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: B. 5%
Rationale: Point prevalence equals the number of persons with the condition on a
specific date divided by the population on that date. Dividing 12 by 240 gives 0.05, or
, 2026/2027
5%. The calculation includes all existing cases present on April 1, regardless of when
the illnesses began. It does not measure only newly diagnosed cases.
Question 8
Thirty of 120 people who attended a banquet developed vomiting and diarrhea. What
is the attack rate?
A. 4%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 40%
Correct Answer: C. 25%
Rationale: The attack rate is calculated by dividing the number of persons who
develop the illness by the total number at risk. Thirty divided by 120 equals 0.25, or
25%. Attack rates are especially useful during outbreak investigations involving a
defined exposed population, such as banquet attendees, residents of a facility, or
participants in an event.
Question 9
A public health investigator wants to determine how many new cases of tuberculosis
developed among exposed healthcare workers during the previous year. Which
measure should be calculated?
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Point prevalence
D. Crude mortality
Correct Answer: B. Incidence
Rationale: Incidence measures newly occurring cases among people at risk during a
specified period. Prevalence includes all existing cases at a particular time or over a
period. Point prevalence is limited to one specific date. Crude mortality measures
deaths in the total population. Therefore, incidence is the correct measure for studying
newly developed tuberculosis cases.
Question 10
A patient has formed stool but remains on a unit experiencing a Clostridioides
difficile outbreak. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Submit the formed stool for routine C. difficile testing
B. Administer treatment before obtaining a specimen
CIC Certified in Infection Control
Exam Prep Guide 2026/2027:
Practice Tests, Quizzes, and Test
Bank Review
Question 1
An infection prevention committee is investigating an increase in healthcare-
associated infections after a hospital expanded its intensive care unit. Which finding
represents a medical intervention factor that could have increased infection risk?
A. Increased contact between patients and therapy animals
B. Extended use of indwelling urinary catheters
C. Older average age of admitted patients
D. Increased prevalence of malnutrition
Correct Answer: B. Extended use of indwelling urinary catheters
Rationale: Indwelling devices are medical intervention factors because their insertion
and continued use provide microorganisms with a route into normally sterile body
sites. Therapy-animal contact is an environmental factor. Advanced age and
malnutrition are anatomical or physiological host factors. Device necessity should be
assessed daily, and unnecessary devices should be removed promptly to reduce
infection risk.
Question 2
A long-term care facility reports an increase in gastrointestinal infections. Which
intervention addresses an environmental factor associated with infection
transmission?
A. Improving staff knowledge about invasive procedures
B. Screening residents for underlying malignancies
C. Reviewing the disinfectant used on shared surfaces
D. Reducing the duration of urinary catheterization
Correct Answer: C. Reviewing the disinfectant used on shared surfaces
Rationale: Disinfectant selection is an environmental intervention factor because the
product’s effectiveness influences the survival of microorganisms on surfaces. Staff
knowledge and catheter duration are medical intervention factors. Malignancy is a
host-related physiological factor. The facility should confirm that the disinfectant is
,2026/2027
appropriate for the suspected organism and is used at the correct concentration and
contact time.
Question 3
Which hospitalized patient has the greatest number of anatomical or physiological
risk factors for infection?
A. A healthy 25-year-old receiving short-term oxygen therapy
B. A 70-year-old patient with diabetes, malnutrition, and traumatic wounds
C. A 40-year-old patient examined by several consulting providers
D. A 35-year-old patient admitted to a unit with inadequate staffing
Correct Answer: B. A 70-year-old patient with diabetes, malnutrition, and
traumatic wounds
Rationale: Advanced age, preexisting disease, poor nutritional status, and trauma are
anatomical or physiological host factors that reduce resistance to infection. Multiple
examinations and inadequate staffing may increase risk, but they are medical or
institutional factors rather than inherent host characteristics. The older patient
therefore has several overlapping vulnerabilities that substantially increase infection
risk.
Question 4
A quality improvement team begins a DMAIC project to reduce central line-
associated bloodstream infections. Which activity belongs primarily to the Define
phase?
A. Calculating the current infection rate
B. Determining the project boundaries and affected patients
C. Identifying statistical causes of performance variation
D. Monitoring the revised process for sustained compliance
Correct Answer: B. Determining the project boundaries and affected patients
Rationale: The Define phase identifies customers, processes, project goals, and
boundaries. Calculating the baseline infection rate belongs to Measure. Identifying
causes of variation occurs during Analyze. Monitoring performance to prevent
regression is part of Control. A clearly defined project prevents scope expansion and
ensures that the team addresses the correct population and process.
Question 5
During a DMAIC initiative, the team reviews central line infection data and discovers
that most infections occur when dressing changes are delayed. Which DMAIC phase
is being performed?
,2026/2027
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Control
Correct Answer: C. Analyze
Rationale: The Analyze phase uses collected data to identify causes of variation,
performance gaps, and priorities for corrective action. Measure establishes current
performance but does not determine why the problem occurs. Define establishes the
project’s scope, and Control maintains improvements after implementation. Linking
delayed dressing changes to infections represents analysis of a likely contributing
cause.
Question 6
Which outcome best demonstrates that an infection surveillance program is
functioning effectively?
A. It records infections without evaluating patterns
B. It detects clusters and identifies associated risk factors
C. It replaces clinical judgment with surveillance definitions
D. It reports only infections required by reimbursement programs
Correct Answer: B. It detects clusters and identifies associated risk factors
Rationale: Effective surveillance detects infections and injuries, identifies trends and
risk factors, recognizes outbreaks or clusters, and evaluates the infection prevention
program. Merely recording cases does not support prevention. Surveillance
definitions promote consistency but do not replace clinical care. Restricting
surveillance to reimbursable conditions may cause important risks and outbreaks to be
missed.
Question 7
On April 1, a rehabilitation facility has 12 residents with influenza among 240
residents. What is the point prevalence of influenza on that date?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 12%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: B. 5%
Rationale: Point prevalence equals the number of persons with the condition on a
specific date divided by the population on that date. Dividing 12 by 240 gives 0.05, or
, 2026/2027
5%. The calculation includes all existing cases present on April 1, regardless of when
the illnesses began. It does not measure only newly diagnosed cases.
Question 8
Thirty of 120 people who attended a banquet developed vomiting and diarrhea. What
is the attack rate?
A. 4%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 40%
Correct Answer: C. 25%
Rationale: The attack rate is calculated by dividing the number of persons who
develop the illness by the total number at risk. Thirty divided by 120 equals 0.25, or
25%. Attack rates are especially useful during outbreak investigations involving a
defined exposed population, such as banquet attendees, residents of a facility, or
participants in an event.
Question 9
A public health investigator wants to determine how many new cases of tuberculosis
developed among exposed healthcare workers during the previous year. Which
measure should be calculated?
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Point prevalence
D. Crude mortality
Correct Answer: B. Incidence
Rationale: Incidence measures newly occurring cases among people at risk during a
specified period. Prevalence includes all existing cases at a particular time or over a
period. Point prevalence is limited to one specific date. Crude mortality measures
deaths in the total population. Therefore, incidence is the correct measure for studying
newly developed tuberculosis cases.
Question 10
A patient has formed stool but remains on a unit experiencing a Clostridioides
difficile outbreak. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Submit the formed stool for routine C. difficile testing
B. Administer treatment before obtaining a specimen
