NRNP 6531 ADVANCED PRACTICE
CARE OF ADULTS EXAM 1
COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A 65-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of left-sided weakness and slurred speech
that resolved completely within 45 minutes. His CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. What is
the most appropriate next step in his pharmacological management?
A. Initiate high-intensity statin therapy and aspirin.
B. Start Warfarin with a target INR of 2.5.
C. Administer IV alteplase immediately.
D. Prescribe Clopidogrel 75mg daily only.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: For a TIA (symptoms resolved), the standard of care includes
antiplatelet therapy (aspirin or DAPT) and high-intensity statins for stroke prevention, as
the CT was negative for acute pathology.
2. Which of the following physical examination findings is most characteristic of a patient
with severe Aortic Stenosis?
A. A mid-systolic click at the apex.
,B. A diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border.
C. A holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla.
D. A systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis typically presents as a harsh systolic crescendo-
decrescendo murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space with radiation to the
carotid arteries.
3. A 45-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with a new onset of a dry
cough. She recently started a new medication. Which class of drugs is most likely responsible?
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. Beta-Blockers
D. Thiazide Diuretics
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors are well-known for causing a dry, non-productive
cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
4. A patient presents with an Hgb of 10.2 g/dL, MCV of 72 fL, and a low ferritin level. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitamin B12 Deficiency
, B. Folic Acid Deficiency
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Anemia of Chronic Disease
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by microcytic (low MCV)
and hypochromic cells with low serum ferritin levels.
5. According to the USPSTF guidelines, at what age should routine screening for colorectal
cancer begin for an average-risk adult?
A. 45 years
B. 40 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The USPSTF updated guidelines now recommend that colorectal
cancer screening begins at age 45 for adults at average risk.
6. Which of the following medications is considered first-line for a patient newly diagnosed
with Type 2 Diabetes and an A1c of 7.5%, assuming no contraindications?
A. Glipizide
B. Pioglitazone
CARE OF ADULTS EXAM 1
COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A 65-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of left-sided weakness and slurred speech
that resolved completely within 45 minutes. His CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. What is
the most appropriate next step in his pharmacological management?
A. Initiate high-intensity statin therapy and aspirin.
B. Start Warfarin with a target INR of 2.5.
C. Administer IV alteplase immediately.
D. Prescribe Clopidogrel 75mg daily only.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: For a TIA (symptoms resolved), the standard of care includes
antiplatelet therapy (aspirin or DAPT) and high-intensity statins for stroke prevention, as
the CT was negative for acute pathology.
2. Which of the following physical examination findings is most characteristic of a patient
with severe Aortic Stenosis?
A. A mid-systolic click at the apex.
,B. A diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border.
C. A holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla.
D. A systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis typically presents as a harsh systolic crescendo-
decrescendo murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space with radiation to the
carotid arteries.
3. A 45-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with a new onset of a dry
cough. She recently started a new medication. Which class of drugs is most likely responsible?
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. Beta-Blockers
D. Thiazide Diuretics
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors are well-known for causing a dry, non-productive
cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
4. A patient presents with an Hgb of 10.2 g/dL, MCV of 72 fL, and a low ferritin level. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitamin B12 Deficiency
, B. Folic Acid Deficiency
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Anemia of Chronic Disease
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by microcytic (low MCV)
and hypochromic cells with low serum ferritin levels.
5. According to the USPSTF guidelines, at what age should routine screening for colorectal
cancer begin for an average-risk adult?
A. 45 years
B. 40 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The USPSTF updated guidelines now recommend that colorectal
cancer screening begins at age 45 for adults at average risk.
6. Which of the following medications is considered first-line for a patient newly diagnosed
with Type 2 Diabetes and an A1c of 7.5%, assuming no contraindications?
A. Glipizide
B. Pioglitazone
