NSG 6005 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
- WEEK 9 COMPREHENSIVE (VERIFIED
AND CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A patient with a history of heart failure and chronic kidney disease requires a diuretic.
Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for managing volume overload when
the GFR is below 30 mL/min?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Triamterene
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Loop diuretics like Furosemide remain effective even when the
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is significantly reduced, whereas thiazides lose efficacy
below 30 mL/min.
2. A 55-year-old male is prescribed Simvastatin for hyperlipidemia. He should be cautioned
against consuming large amounts of which substance due to the risk of increased drug levels?
A. Grapefruit juice
,B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Cranberry juice
D. Dairy products
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 enzyme, which is
responsible for metabolizing simvastatin, leading to increased plasma concentrations and
risk of rhabdomyolysis.
3. Which mechanism best describes the action of Ezetimibe in lowering cholesterol?
A. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
B. Binding of bile acids in the intestine
C. Inhibition of cholesterol absorption at the brush border of the small intestine
D. Activation of PPAR-alpha receptors
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Ezetimibe selectively inhibits the absorption of cholesterol at
the brush border of the small intestine via the NPC1L1 protein.
4. A patient taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation has an INR of 7.0 but is not bleeding. What is
the most appropriate immediate action according to ACCP guidelines?
A. Administer 10 mg of Vitamin K intravenously
B. Administer Fresh Frozen Plasma immediately
, C. Continue Warfarin but reduce the dose
D. Hold Warfarin and administer oral Vitamin K
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For INRs between 4.5 and 10.0 without significant bleeding, the
recommendation is to hold warfarin and potentially provide a small dose of oral Vitamin K.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin?
A. Direct inhibition of thrombin
B. Antagonizing Vitamin K epoxide reductase
C. Inhibiting Platelet Aggregation via COX-1
D. Potentiating the action of antithrombin III
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Heparin works by binding to and accelerating the activity of
antithrombin III, which then inactivates thrombin and Factor Xa.
6. Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors that is mediated by
increased levels of bradykinin?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dry, nonproductive cough
- WEEK 9 COMPREHENSIVE (VERIFIED
AND CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A patient with a history of heart failure and chronic kidney disease requires a diuretic.
Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for managing volume overload when
the GFR is below 30 mL/min?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Triamterene
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Loop diuretics like Furosemide remain effective even when the
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is significantly reduced, whereas thiazides lose efficacy
below 30 mL/min.
2. A 55-year-old male is prescribed Simvastatin for hyperlipidemia. He should be cautioned
against consuming large amounts of which substance due to the risk of increased drug levels?
A. Grapefruit juice
,B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Cranberry juice
D. Dairy products
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 enzyme, which is
responsible for metabolizing simvastatin, leading to increased plasma concentrations and
risk of rhabdomyolysis.
3. Which mechanism best describes the action of Ezetimibe in lowering cholesterol?
A. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
B. Binding of bile acids in the intestine
C. Inhibition of cholesterol absorption at the brush border of the small intestine
D. Activation of PPAR-alpha receptors
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Ezetimibe selectively inhibits the absorption of cholesterol at
the brush border of the small intestine via the NPC1L1 protein.
4. A patient taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation has an INR of 7.0 but is not bleeding. What is
the most appropriate immediate action according to ACCP guidelines?
A. Administer 10 mg of Vitamin K intravenously
B. Administer Fresh Frozen Plasma immediately
, C. Continue Warfarin but reduce the dose
D. Hold Warfarin and administer oral Vitamin K
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For INRs between 4.5 and 10.0 without significant bleeding, the
recommendation is to hold warfarin and potentially provide a small dose of oral Vitamin K.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin?
A. Direct inhibition of thrombin
B. Antagonizing Vitamin K epoxide reductase
C. Inhibiting Platelet Aggregation via COX-1
D. Potentiating the action of antithrombin III
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Heparin works by binding to and accelerating the activity of
antithrombin III, which then inactivates thrombin and Factor Xa.
6. Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors that is mediated by
increased levels of bradykinin?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dry, nonproductive cough
