NSG 6005 WEEK 10 ADVANCED
PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS FINAL
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medication classes should be strictly
avoided in elderly patients with a history of falls or fractures?
A. Biguanides
B. Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
C. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SSRIs are included in the Beers Criteria as medications to avoid
in patients with a history of falls or fractures because they can cause syncope, psychomotor
impairment, and increase the risk of subsequent falls.
2. In pediatric patients, the volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs is typically:
A. Higher than in adults due to a higher percentage of total body water
B. Lower than in adults due to less muscle mass
C. The same as in adults once they reach 6 months of age
,D. Unaffected by age or body composition
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Neonates and infants have a significantly higher percentage of
total body water (up to 80%) compared to adults (60%), leading to a higher volume of
distribution for water-soluble medications.
3. Which statement best describes the FDA Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) that
replaced the old A, B, C, D, X categories?
A. It uses a numerical scale from 1 to 10 to indicate safety
B. It provides descriptive summaries of risks and clinical considerations for pregnancy and
lactation
C. It requires all drugs to be tested on pregnant women before approval
D. It simplifies the labeling to a binary ‘Safe’ or ‘Unsafe’ designation
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The PLLR removed the letter categories and replaced them with
detailed narrative sections covering Pregnancy, Lactation, and Females and Males of
Reproductive Potential to provide better context for clinical decision-making.
4. A patient taking Rifampin for tuberculosis also takes an oral contraceptive. The nurse
practitioner knows that Rifampin is a potent CYP450 inducer. What is the clinical implication?
A. The contraceptive level will increase, increasing side effects
, B. The contraceptive level will decrease, increasing the risk of pregnancy
C. Rifampin levels will become toxic due to competition
D. There is no significant interaction between these two drugs
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: As a potent CYP450 inducer, Rifampin increases the metabolism
of oral contraceptives, leading to lower serum concentrations and potential failure of the
contraceptive.
5. When initiating an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) like
Sacubitril/Valsartan in a patient previously on an ACE inhibitor, how long is the required
washout period?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 36 hours
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: A 36-hour washout period is mandatory when switching from
an ACE inhibitor to an ARNI to minimize the risk of angioedema.
PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS FINAL
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medication classes should be strictly
avoided in elderly patients with a history of falls or fractures?
A. Biguanides
B. Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
C. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SSRIs are included in the Beers Criteria as medications to avoid
in patients with a history of falls or fractures because they can cause syncope, psychomotor
impairment, and increase the risk of subsequent falls.
2. In pediatric patients, the volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs is typically:
A. Higher than in adults due to a higher percentage of total body water
B. Lower than in adults due to less muscle mass
C. The same as in adults once they reach 6 months of age
,D. Unaffected by age or body composition
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Neonates and infants have a significantly higher percentage of
total body water (up to 80%) compared to adults (60%), leading to a higher volume of
distribution for water-soluble medications.
3. Which statement best describes the FDA Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) that
replaced the old A, B, C, D, X categories?
A. It uses a numerical scale from 1 to 10 to indicate safety
B. It provides descriptive summaries of risks and clinical considerations for pregnancy and
lactation
C. It requires all drugs to be tested on pregnant women before approval
D. It simplifies the labeling to a binary ‘Safe’ or ‘Unsafe’ designation
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The PLLR removed the letter categories and replaced them with
detailed narrative sections covering Pregnancy, Lactation, and Females and Males of
Reproductive Potential to provide better context for clinical decision-making.
4. A patient taking Rifampin for tuberculosis also takes an oral contraceptive. The nurse
practitioner knows that Rifampin is a potent CYP450 inducer. What is the clinical implication?
A. The contraceptive level will increase, increasing side effects
, B. The contraceptive level will decrease, increasing the risk of pregnancy
C. Rifampin levels will become toxic due to competition
D. There is no significant interaction between these two drugs
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: As a potent CYP450 inducer, Rifampin increases the metabolism
of oral contraceptives, leading to lower serum concentrations and potential failure of the
contraceptive.
5. When initiating an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) like
Sacubitril/Valsartan in a patient previously on an ACE inhibitor, how long is the required
washout period?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 36 hours
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: A 36-hour washout period is mandatory when switching from
an ACE inhibitor to an ARNI to minimize the risk of angioedema.
