NU 578 Study Guide Test 2 & Unit 2
Combined 2026 Questions & Verified
Answers | Latest Update | Graded A+
University of South Alabama
NU 578 — Test 2 + Unit 2100-Question Practice Exam
Questions 1–25
1.
A medication has a high volume of distribution (Vd). What does this generally indicate?
A. The medication remains primarily in plasma
B. The medication extensively distributes into tissues
C. The medication cannot cross cell membranes
D. The medication is rapidly eliminated by the kidneys
Answer: B
Rationale: A high Vd generally indicates extensive distribution from the bloodstream into
tissues. Vd is a calculated pharmacokinetic parameter and does not represent an actual anatomic
volume.
2.
Which pharmacokinetic process describes movement of a drug from the gastrointestinal tract into
systemic circulation?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
,Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the movement of a medication from its administration site into
systemic circulation.
3. SATA
Which factors can affect oral drug absorption?
A. Gastric pH
B. Gastrointestinal motility
C. Food intake
D. Drug formulation
E. Patient's hair color
Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Gastric pH, GI motility, food, formulation, and other factors can significantly
influence oral absorption.
4.
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Thyroid
D. Pancreas
Answer: A
Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism, particularly through hepatic enzyme
systems such as CYP450.
5.
A patient taking a medication metabolized by CYP3A4 begins taking a strong CYP3A4
inhibitor. What is the likely effect?
,A. Decreased drug concentration
B. Increased drug concentration
C. No change in drug concentration
D. Immediate renal elimination
Answer: B
Rationale: CYP inhibition can decrease metabolism, resulting in increased plasma
concentrations and potentially increased toxicity.
6. SATA
Which are potential consequences of inhibiting hepatic drug metabolism?
A. Increased plasma drug concentration
B. Prolonged drug effect
C. Increased risk of toxicity
D. Reduced drug exposure in every case
E. Possible need for dose adjustment
Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Metabolic inhibition can increase exposure and duration of action. Clinical effects
depend on the specific drug and pathway.
7.
A CYP450 inducer is started in a patient taking a medication metabolized through that enzyme
pathway. What is generally expected?
A. Reduced metabolism
B. Increased metabolism
C. Complete prevention of elimination
D. Immediate renal failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Enzyme induction generally increases metabolism of susceptible substrates and can
reduce their plasma concentrations.
, 8.
Which medication characteristic generally increases the risk of accumulation in a patient with
significant renal impairment?
A. Predominantly renal elimination
B. Complete fecal elimination
C. No systemic absorption
D. Topical administration only
Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs substantially eliminated by the kidneys may accumulate when renal function
declines, requiring appropriate monitoring and sometimes dose adjustment.
9.
A drug has a half-life of 8 hours. Approximately how long would it take to reach near steady
state with repeated dosing?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 32–40 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: C
Rationale: Most drugs approach steady state after approximately 4–5 half-lives. Five half-lives
for this medication equal about 40 hours.
10.
Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the time required for the plasma concentration of a
drug to decrease by approximately 50%?
A. Clearance
B. Half-life
C. Bioavailability
D. Potency
Answer: B
Combined 2026 Questions & Verified
Answers | Latest Update | Graded A+
University of South Alabama
NU 578 — Test 2 + Unit 2100-Question Practice Exam
Questions 1–25
1.
A medication has a high volume of distribution (Vd). What does this generally indicate?
A. The medication remains primarily in plasma
B. The medication extensively distributes into tissues
C. The medication cannot cross cell membranes
D. The medication is rapidly eliminated by the kidneys
Answer: B
Rationale: A high Vd generally indicates extensive distribution from the bloodstream into
tissues. Vd is a calculated pharmacokinetic parameter and does not represent an actual anatomic
volume.
2.
Which pharmacokinetic process describes movement of a drug from the gastrointestinal tract into
systemic circulation?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
,Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the movement of a medication from its administration site into
systemic circulation.
3. SATA
Which factors can affect oral drug absorption?
A. Gastric pH
B. Gastrointestinal motility
C. Food intake
D. Drug formulation
E. Patient's hair color
Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Gastric pH, GI motility, food, formulation, and other factors can significantly
influence oral absorption.
4.
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Thyroid
D. Pancreas
Answer: A
Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism, particularly through hepatic enzyme
systems such as CYP450.
5.
A patient taking a medication metabolized by CYP3A4 begins taking a strong CYP3A4
inhibitor. What is the likely effect?
,A. Decreased drug concentration
B. Increased drug concentration
C. No change in drug concentration
D. Immediate renal elimination
Answer: B
Rationale: CYP inhibition can decrease metabolism, resulting in increased plasma
concentrations and potentially increased toxicity.
6. SATA
Which are potential consequences of inhibiting hepatic drug metabolism?
A. Increased plasma drug concentration
B. Prolonged drug effect
C. Increased risk of toxicity
D. Reduced drug exposure in every case
E. Possible need for dose adjustment
Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Metabolic inhibition can increase exposure and duration of action. Clinical effects
depend on the specific drug and pathway.
7.
A CYP450 inducer is started in a patient taking a medication metabolized through that enzyme
pathway. What is generally expected?
A. Reduced metabolism
B. Increased metabolism
C. Complete prevention of elimination
D. Immediate renal failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Enzyme induction generally increases metabolism of susceptible substrates and can
reduce their plasma concentrations.
, 8.
Which medication characteristic generally increases the risk of accumulation in a patient with
significant renal impairment?
A. Predominantly renal elimination
B. Complete fecal elimination
C. No systemic absorption
D. Topical administration only
Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs substantially eliminated by the kidneys may accumulate when renal function
declines, requiring appropriate monitoring and sometimes dose adjustment.
9.
A drug has a half-life of 8 hours. Approximately how long would it take to reach near steady
state with repeated dosing?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 32–40 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: C
Rationale: Most drugs approach steady state after approximately 4–5 half-lives. Five half-lives
for this medication equal about 40 hours.
10.
Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the time required for the plasma concentration of a
drug to decrease by approximately 50%?
A. Clearance
B. Half-life
C. Bioavailability
D. Potency
Answer: B
