NURS 5334 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM REVIEW
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(LATEST ), (A+ GUARANTEE).
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected by the first-pass effect when a drug is
administered orally?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Absorption
D. Metabolism
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The first-pass effect refers to the rapid hepatic metabolism of a
drug as it passes through the liver via the portal vein after oral absorption, before reaching
systemic circulation.
2. An NP prescribes a drug that is a known Cytochrome P450 (CYP450) inducer. What effect
will this have on a co-administered substrate drug?
A. Increased plasma levels of the substrate
B. Increased risk of toxicity of the substrate
,C. Decreased plasma levels of the substrate
D. No change in metabolism
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Inducers increase the activity of enzymes, leading to faster
metabolism of the substrate drug and consequently lower plasma concentrations.
3. Which parameter indicates the safety margin of a drug by comparing the lethal dose to the
effective dose?
A. Half-life
B. Therapeutic Index
C. Steady state
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Therapeutic Index (TI) is a ratio that compares the blood
concentration at which a drug becomes toxic and the concentration at which the drug is
effective.
4. A patient with a history of asthma requires a beta-blocker for hypertension. Which agent is
most appropriate due to its cardioselectivity?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
, C. Nadolol
D. Timolol
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker, which is less
likely to cause bronchoconstriction compared to non-selective beta-blockers like
Propranolol.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating heart failure?
A. Inhibition of the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Direct stimulation of beta-receptors
C. Blocking of Calcium channels in smooth muscle
D. Increasing renal sodium reabsorption
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to the
potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II, reducing afterload and preload.
6. A patient taking Warfarin has an INR of 1.2. How should the provider interpret this result?
A. The dose is therapeutic
B. The patient is at high risk for bleeding
C. The INR is dangerously high
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM REVIEW
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(LATEST ), (A+ GUARANTEE).
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected by the first-pass effect when a drug is
administered orally?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Absorption
D. Metabolism
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The first-pass effect refers to the rapid hepatic metabolism of a
drug as it passes through the liver via the portal vein after oral absorption, before reaching
systemic circulation.
2. An NP prescribes a drug that is a known Cytochrome P450 (CYP450) inducer. What effect
will this have on a co-administered substrate drug?
A. Increased plasma levels of the substrate
B. Increased risk of toxicity of the substrate
,C. Decreased plasma levels of the substrate
D. No change in metabolism
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Inducers increase the activity of enzymes, leading to faster
metabolism of the substrate drug and consequently lower plasma concentrations.
3. Which parameter indicates the safety margin of a drug by comparing the lethal dose to the
effective dose?
A. Half-life
B. Therapeutic Index
C. Steady state
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Therapeutic Index (TI) is a ratio that compares the blood
concentration at which a drug becomes toxic and the concentration at which the drug is
effective.
4. A patient with a history of asthma requires a beta-blocker for hypertension. Which agent is
most appropriate due to its cardioselectivity?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
, C. Nadolol
D. Timolol
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker, which is less
likely to cause bronchoconstriction compared to non-selective beta-blockers like
Propranolol.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating heart failure?
A. Inhibition of the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Direct stimulation of beta-receptors
C. Blocking of Calcium channels in smooth muscle
D. Increasing renal sodium reabsorption
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to the
potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II, reducing afterload and preload.
6. A patient taking Warfarin has an INR of 1.2. How should the provider interpret this result?
A. The dose is therapeutic
B. The patient is at high risk for bleeding
C. The INR is dangerously high
