Pharmacology Evolve HESI Solved Correctly Latest Update 2027,
Graded A+
Question 1.
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated and placed
on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client
from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide
IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible
for a potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: B. Neostigmine bromide Neostigmine bromide and atropine
sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis
caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to
pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the
drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
Question 2.
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen
elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that
the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
Correct Answer: C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
Question 3.
When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia
gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
Correct Answer: B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
,Question 4.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual reduction using
conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse explain as a sedative used during
the procedure? A.Inhaled nitrous oxide B.Midazolam IV C.Ketamine IM D.Fentanyl and
droperidol IM
Correct Answer: B. Midazolam IV
Question 5.
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis.
Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Correct Answer: D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Question 6.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures
have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood
tests every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which
complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain
to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression D.Hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer: C. Myelosuppression Myelosuppression is the highest priority
complication that can potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine
therapy. The client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly
laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not have as great a potential for occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not
typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
,Question 7.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for
treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The
administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add
this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: D. Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic
adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C
does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
Question 8.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which
response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug teaching
conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug."
Correct Answer: A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to
wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
accurate statements about side effects of this medication.
Question 9.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His
parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid,
for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency
department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: B. Diazepam Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of
status epilepticus. Options A, C, and D are used for the long-term management
of seizure disorders but are not as useful in the emergency management of
status epilepticus.
, Question 10.
A client who has trouble swallow- ing pills intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine
(XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What should the nurse include
in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding or applesauce.
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance absorption.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of water or juice.
D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
Correct Answer: D. Contact the health care provider for another form of
medication. Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are
extended-release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain delayed-release,
enteric-coated granules to prevent decomposition of the drug in the acidic pH of
the stomach. The client should notify the health care provider about the
inability to swallow the capsule. This medication should not be chewed or
opened so that the delayed-release, enteric-coated granules can remain intact.
Water or juice will not affect the medication.
Question 11.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
Correct Answer: C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic. To
minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the
mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because
absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the
skin. Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases
the risk of systemic absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface
area increases the amount of topical drug that is available for transdermal
absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not option D.
Graded A+
Question 1.
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated and placed
on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client
from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide
IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible
for a potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: B. Neostigmine bromide Neostigmine bromide and atropine
sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis
caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to
pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the
drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
Question 2.
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen
elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that
the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
Correct Answer: C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
Question 3.
When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia
gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
Correct Answer: B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
,Question 4.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual reduction using
conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse explain as a sedative used during
the procedure? A.Inhaled nitrous oxide B.Midazolam IV C.Ketamine IM D.Fentanyl and
droperidol IM
Correct Answer: B. Midazolam IV
Question 5.
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis.
Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Correct Answer: D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
Question 6.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures
have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood
tests every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which
complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain
to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression D.Hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer: C. Myelosuppression Myelosuppression is the highest priority
complication that can potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine
therapy. The client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly
laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not have as great a potential for occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not
typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
,Question 7.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for
treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The
administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add
this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: D. Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic
adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C
does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
Question 8.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which
response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug teaching
conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug."
Correct Answer: A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to
wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
accurate statements about side effects of this medication.
Question 9.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His
parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid,
for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency
department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: B. Diazepam Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of
status epilepticus. Options A, C, and D are used for the long-term management
of seizure disorders but are not as useful in the emergency management of
status epilepticus.
, Question 10.
A client who has trouble swallow- ing pills intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine
(XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What should the nurse include
in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding or applesauce.
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance absorption.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of water or juice.
D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
Correct Answer: D. Contact the health care provider for another form of
medication. Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are
extended-release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain delayed-release,
enteric-coated granules to prevent decomposition of the drug in the acidic pH of
the stomach. The client should notify the health care provider about the
inability to swallow the capsule. This medication should not be chewed or
opened so that the delayed-release, enteric-coated granules can remain intact.
Water or juice will not affect the medication.
Question 11.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
Correct Answer: C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic. To
minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the
mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because
absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the
skin. Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases
the risk of systemic absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface
area increases the amount of topical drug that is available for transdermal
absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not option D.
