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NSG 3500 MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 2 - 2026 QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
NSG 3500 MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 2: 150 ORIGINAL QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM ASSESSMENT & PRENATAL CARE
Questions 1–15
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to admit a patient in early labor. Which assessment finding requires
immediate notification of the provider?
A. Contractions every 5 minutes lasting 45 seconds
B. Fetal heart rate of 120 bpm with moderate variability
C. Rupture of membranes with green-tinged fluid
D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Green-tinged amniotic fluid indicates the presence of meconium, which may signify
fetal distress. This finding requires immediate evaluation because meconium aspiration can lead
to respiratory complications in the newborn.
Question 2
Using Nagele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a patient whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on February 10th?
A. November 10th
B. November 17th
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C. November 24th
D. December 1st
Answer: B
Rationale: Nagele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and adding 7 days. February 10th minus 3 months = November 10th; November 10th plus
7 days = November 17th.
Question 3
A pregnant patient at 36 weeks' gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Assess the fetal heart rate and check for cord prolapse
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics
D. Prepare the patient for immediate delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: When rupture of membranes occurs, the priority is to assess for cord prolapse by
checking the fetal heart rate and performing a sterile vaginal examination if indicated. Cord
prolapse is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Question 4
Which laboratory test is used to screen for gestational diabetes at 24–28 weeks' gestation?
A. Complete blood count
B. Glucose challenge test
C. Urinalysis
D. Thyroid function tests
Answer: B
Rationale: The glucose challenge test (GCT) is the standard screening tool for gestational
diabetes, typically performed at 24–28 weeks' gestation. If the GCT is abnormal, a 3-hour
glucose tolerance test is performed for diagnosis.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing a patient's prenatal record. The patient's blood type is O negative. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate?
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A. Administration of RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum
B. Administration of iron supplements
C. Increased frequency of prenatal visits
D. Additional ultrasound examinations
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive or unknown fetal blood type require RhoGAM
at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery to prevent Rh sensitization.
Question 6
A pregnant patient reports nausea and vomiting during the first trimester. Which intervention
should the nurse recommend first?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Take antiemetic medication before meals
C. Avoid all fluids until nausea subsides
D. Eat three large meals daily
Answer: A
Rationale: Eating small, frequent meals helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and reduces
nausea. This is the first-line non-pharmacologic intervention for morning sickness.
Question 7
A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment. Which finding should be reported to the
provider immediately?
A. Fetal heart rate of 145 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 148/96 mm Hg at 32 weeks
C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week
D. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 148/96 mm Hg at 32 weeks is concerning for gestational
hypertension or preeclampsia. This finding requires immediate evaluation.
Question 8
What is the purpose of the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test?
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A. To screen for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities
B. To assess fetal lung maturity
C. To determine fetal gender
D. To diagnose gestational diabetes
Answer: A
Rationale: The AFP test is a maternal serum screening test that can detect neural tube defects
(e.g., spina bifida) and certain chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome).
Question 9
A patient at 28 weeks' gestation asks the nurse about counting fetal movements. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Count fetal movements for 30 minutes every morning."
B. "Perform a kick count for 2 hours after meals."
C. "You should feel at least 10 movements in 2 hours."
D. "Only count movements when you feel the baby move."
Answer: C
Rationale: The standard recommendation is to count fetal movements until 10 movements are
felt within 2 hours. If fewer than 10 movements occur, the patient should contact their provider
immediately.
Question 10
Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Tdap
B. Influenza (inactivated)
C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
D. COVID-19 vaccine
Answer: C
Rationale: Live attenuated vaccines such as MMR are contraindicated during pregnancy due to
the theoretical risk of fetal infection. Tdap, inactivated influenza, and COVID-19 vaccines are
recommended.
NSG 3500 MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 2 - 2026 QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
NSG 3500 MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 2: 150 ORIGINAL QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM ASSESSMENT & PRENATAL CARE
Questions 1–15
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to admit a patient in early labor. Which assessment finding requires
immediate notification of the provider?
A. Contractions every 5 minutes lasting 45 seconds
B. Fetal heart rate of 120 bpm with moderate variability
C. Rupture of membranes with green-tinged fluid
D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Green-tinged amniotic fluid indicates the presence of meconium, which may signify
fetal distress. This finding requires immediate evaluation because meconium aspiration can lead
to respiratory complications in the newborn.
Question 2
Using Nagele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a patient whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on February 10th?
A. November 10th
B. November 17th
,Page 2 of 51
C. November 24th
D. December 1st
Answer: B
Rationale: Nagele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and adding 7 days. February 10th minus 3 months = November 10th; November 10th plus
7 days = November 17th.
Question 3
A pregnant patient at 36 weeks' gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Assess the fetal heart rate and check for cord prolapse
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics
D. Prepare the patient for immediate delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: When rupture of membranes occurs, the priority is to assess for cord prolapse by
checking the fetal heart rate and performing a sterile vaginal examination if indicated. Cord
prolapse is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Question 4
Which laboratory test is used to screen for gestational diabetes at 24–28 weeks' gestation?
A. Complete blood count
B. Glucose challenge test
C. Urinalysis
D. Thyroid function tests
Answer: B
Rationale: The glucose challenge test (GCT) is the standard screening tool for gestational
diabetes, typically performed at 24–28 weeks' gestation. If the GCT is abnormal, a 3-hour
glucose tolerance test is performed for diagnosis.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing a patient's prenatal record. The patient's blood type is O negative. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate?
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A. Administration of RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum
B. Administration of iron supplements
C. Increased frequency of prenatal visits
D. Additional ultrasound examinations
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive or unknown fetal blood type require RhoGAM
at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery to prevent Rh sensitization.
Question 6
A pregnant patient reports nausea and vomiting during the first trimester. Which intervention
should the nurse recommend first?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Take antiemetic medication before meals
C. Avoid all fluids until nausea subsides
D. Eat three large meals daily
Answer: A
Rationale: Eating small, frequent meals helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and reduces
nausea. This is the first-line non-pharmacologic intervention for morning sickness.
Question 7
A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment. Which finding should be reported to the
provider immediately?
A. Fetal heart rate of 145 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 148/96 mm Hg at 32 weeks
C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week
D. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 148/96 mm Hg at 32 weeks is concerning for gestational
hypertension or preeclampsia. This finding requires immediate evaluation.
Question 8
What is the purpose of the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test?
, Page 4 of 51
A. To screen for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities
B. To assess fetal lung maturity
C. To determine fetal gender
D. To diagnose gestational diabetes
Answer: A
Rationale: The AFP test is a maternal serum screening test that can detect neural tube defects
(e.g., spina bifida) and certain chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome).
Question 9
A patient at 28 weeks' gestation asks the nurse about counting fetal movements. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Count fetal movements for 30 minutes every morning."
B. "Perform a kick count for 2 hours after meals."
C. "You should feel at least 10 movements in 2 hours."
D. "Only count movements when you feel the baby move."
Answer: C
Rationale: The standard recommendation is to count fetal movements until 10 movements are
felt within 2 hours. If fewer than 10 movements occur, the patient should contact their provider
immediately.
Question 10
Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Tdap
B. Influenza (inactivated)
C. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
D. COVID-19 vaccine
Answer: C
Rationale: Live attenuated vaccines such as MMR are contraindicated during pregnancy due to
the theoretical risk of fetal infection. Tdap, inactivated influenza, and COVID-19 vaccines are
recommended.
