F L O R I D A N U R S I N G H O M E A D M I N I S T R AT I O N
A+
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
FLORIDA NHA PRACTICE
TEST
AND LAWS & RULES
2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK WITH 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
FL Nursing Home Administrator Exclusive Study Guide 2026/2027 • Passing Score: 75% • Detailed
Rationales
A+ 2 100%
A+ QUESTIONS VERIFIED SECTIONS COMPLETE R AT I O N A L E S
C AT E G O R I E S
Florida Statutes Chapter 400 and Licensure
F.A.C. Chapter 59A-4 Rules
Resident Rights and Ombudsman Program
Administrator Licensure, AIT and CE (Ch. 468)
Federal Requirements, OBRA and F-Tags
Survey Process, Fines and Enforcement
Operations, Staffing and Quality Care
Emergency Management and Ethics
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,This practice exam mirrors the style, difficulty, and topic coverage of the Florida NHA Exclusive Study Guide
(2026/2027 edition). Answer each multiple-choice question, then check the green Correct Answer line and rationale
beneath every item. A consolidated answer key appears at the end of the document. Recommended passing score: 75%.
SECTION 1 - FLORIDA NHA PRACTICE TEST | QUESTIONS 1–120
Q1. The licensed nursing home administrator is legally responsible for:
A. Performing all nursing duties personally
B. The overall operation of the facility in compliance with federal and state requirements, delegating
duties while retaining accountability
C. Only the dietary department's operations
D. Only the facility's marketing efforts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The administrator is the license holder's operational leader, accountable for compliance, resident care quality,
staffing, finances, and physical plant, even when duties are delegated to department heads.
Q2. The governing body of a nursing home is ultimately responsible for:
A. The facility's policies, resources, and quality of care, including appointment of a licensed
administrator
B. Preparing resident meals daily
C. Performing the annual Medicare cost report
D. Conducting MDS assessments
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Federal requirements place accountability for management, policies, finances, and quality with the governing
body, which must appoint a licensed administrator and ensure the facility operates within laws and regulations.
Q3. The medical director of a nursing home is responsible for:
A. Cleaning the medication room
B. Serving meals in the dining room
C. Signing every payroll check
D. Implementing resident care policies and coordinating medical care in the facility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The medical director provides clinical leadership: developing resident care policies, coordinating physician
services, overseeing clinical quality, and participating in QAPI and infection control programs.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 1
,Q4. The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) program differs from traditional QA
because it:
A. Focuses only on punishing staff after errors
B. Replaces the need for surveys
C. Uses data-driven, systematic methods such as PDSA cycles to proactively identify and correct
systemic problems
D. Applies only to the dietary department
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: QAPI combines QA's oversight with performance improvement methods: it uses indicators, root cause analysis,
and Plan-Do-Study-Act cycles to attack systemic causes rather than blame individuals.
Q5. The facility assessment required of nursing homes must consider:
A. The residents' payment sources only
B. The facility's resident population, staff competencies, physical environment, equipment, and
resources needed to provide required care
C. Only the administrator's salary
D. Only the annual survey results
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The facility assessment (F-838) requires systematic review of census, case mix, acuity, staffing needs and
competencies, plant, and equipment, and it anchors staffing decisions and emergency planning.
Q6. A comprehensive resident assessment using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) must be completed within
how many days of a Medicare or Medicaid resident's admission?
A. 7 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 14 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: OBRA requires a comprehensive assessment within 14 days of admission (excluding readmissions returning
within 30 days under certain rules), which then drives the interdisciplinary care plan.
Q7. After completion of a comprehensive MDS assessment, the interdisciplinary team must develop or revise
the comprehensive care plan within:
A. The next 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. 21 days
D. 7 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The care plan must be completed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment, with
measurable goals, interventions, and assigned disciplines reviewed at required intervals.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 2
, Q8. A significant change in a resident's physical or mental condition requires a new comprehensive
assessment within:
A. 7 days of identifying the change
B. 30 days
C. 14 days of identifying the change
D. The next annual review date
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a resident experiences a significant decline or improvement, the facility must complete a comprehensive
assessment within 14 days of identifying the change and update the care plan accordingly.
Q9. The primary purpose of the Minimum Data Set (MDS 3.0) is to:
A. Set the administrator's salary
B. Provide a standardized, federally required assessment that drives individualized care planning and
Medicare/Medicaid payment
C. Track visitor parking
D. Replace the need for physician orders
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The MDS is the standardized core assessment instrument; its items drive care planning, quality measures,
Five-Star staffing and quality scoring, and PPS payment classification for Medicare stays.
Q10. Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) Level I screening is required for:
A. Only private-pay residents
B. Only residents over age 65
C. Every new admission to a Medicaid-certified nursing facility, to identify suspected serious mental
illness or intellectual disability
D. Only residents with dementia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Level I screening applies to all Medicaid-certified NF admissions to identify possible serious mental illness or
intellectual disability, which triggers Level II specialized evaluation before or after admission under limited exceptions.
Q11. Discharge planning for nursing home residents must begin:
A. Only when the resident's family requests it
B. Only the day before discharge
C. At admission and continue as a team process throughout the stay
D. Only after the 100th day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Discharge planning is a resident-centered, interdisciplinary process that begins at admission, addresses
discharge goals and barriers, and coordinates supports for a safe transition home or to another setting.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 3
A+
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
FLORIDA NHA PRACTICE
TEST
AND LAWS & RULES
2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK WITH 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
FL Nursing Home Administrator Exclusive Study Guide 2026/2027 • Passing Score: 75% • Detailed
Rationales
A+ 2 100%
A+ QUESTIONS VERIFIED SECTIONS COMPLETE R AT I O N A L E S
C AT E G O R I E S
Florida Statutes Chapter 400 and Licensure
F.A.C. Chapter 59A-4 Rules
Resident Rights and Ombudsman Program
Administrator Licensure, AIT and CE (Ch. 468)
Federal Requirements, OBRA and F-Tags
Survey Process, Fines and Enforcement
Operations, Staffing and Quality Care
Emergency Management and Ethics
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,This practice exam mirrors the style, difficulty, and topic coverage of the Florida NHA Exclusive Study Guide
(2026/2027 edition). Answer each multiple-choice question, then check the green Correct Answer line and rationale
beneath every item. A consolidated answer key appears at the end of the document. Recommended passing score: 75%.
SECTION 1 - FLORIDA NHA PRACTICE TEST | QUESTIONS 1–120
Q1. The licensed nursing home administrator is legally responsible for:
A. Performing all nursing duties personally
B. The overall operation of the facility in compliance with federal and state requirements, delegating
duties while retaining accountability
C. Only the dietary department's operations
D. Only the facility's marketing efforts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The administrator is the license holder's operational leader, accountable for compliance, resident care quality,
staffing, finances, and physical plant, even when duties are delegated to department heads.
Q2. The governing body of a nursing home is ultimately responsible for:
A. The facility's policies, resources, and quality of care, including appointment of a licensed
administrator
B. Preparing resident meals daily
C. Performing the annual Medicare cost report
D. Conducting MDS assessments
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Federal requirements place accountability for management, policies, finances, and quality with the governing
body, which must appoint a licensed administrator and ensure the facility operates within laws and regulations.
Q3. The medical director of a nursing home is responsible for:
A. Cleaning the medication room
B. Serving meals in the dining room
C. Signing every payroll check
D. Implementing resident care policies and coordinating medical care in the facility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The medical director provides clinical leadership: developing resident care policies, coordinating physician
services, overseeing clinical quality, and participating in QAPI and infection control programs.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 1
,Q4. The Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) program differs from traditional QA
because it:
A. Focuses only on punishing staff after errors
B. Replaces the need for surveys
C. Uses data-driven, systematic methods such as PDSA cycles to proactively identify and correct
systemic problems
D. Applies only to the dietary department
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: QAPI combines QA's oversight with performance improvement methods: it uses indicators, root cause analysis,
and Plan-Do-Study-Act cycles to attack systemic causes rather than blame individuals.
Q5. The facility assessment required of nursing homes must consider:
A. The residents' payment sources only
B. The facility's resident population, staff competencies, physical environment, equipment, and
resources needed to provide required care
C. Only the administrator's salary
D. Only the annual survey results
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The facility assessment (F-838) requires systematic review of census, case mix, acuity, staffing needs and
competencies, plant, and equipment, and it anchors staffing decisions and emergency planning.
Q6. A comprehensive resident assessment using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) must be completed within
how many days of a Medicare or Medicaid resident's admission?
A. 7 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 14 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: OBRA requires a comprehensive assessment within 14 days of admission (excluding readmissions returning
within 30 days under certain rules), which then drives the interdisciplinary care plan.
Q7. After completion of a comprehensive MDS assessment, the interdisciplinary team must develop or revise
the comprehensive care plan within:
A. The next 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. 21 days
D. 7 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The care plan must be completed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment, with
measurable goals, interventions, and assigned disciplines reviewed at required intervals.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 2
, Q8. A significant change in a resident's physical or mental condition requires a new comprehensive
assessment within:
A. 7 days of identifying the change
B. 30 days
C. 14 days of identifying the change
D. The next annual review date
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a resident experiences a significant decline or improvement, the facility must complete a comprehensive
assessment within 14 days of identifying the change and update the care plan accordingly.
Q9. The primary purpose of the Minimum Data Set (MDS 3.0) is to:
A. Set the administrator's salary
B. Provide a standardized, federally required assessment that drives individualized care planning and
Medicare/Medicaid payment
C. Track visitor parking
D. Replace the need for physician orders
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The MDS is the standardized core assessment instrument; its items drive care planning, quality measures,
Five-Star staffing and quality scoring, and PPS payment classification for Medicare stays.
Q10. Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) Level I screening is required for:
A. Only private-pay residents
B. Only residents over age 65
C. Every new admission to a Medicaid-certified nursing facility, to identify suspected serious mental
illness or intellectual disability
D. Only residents with dementia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Level I screening applies to all Medicaid-certified NF admissions to identify possible serious mental illness or
intellectual disability, which triggers Level II specialized evaluation before or after admission under limited exceptions.
Q11. Discharge planning for nursing home residents must begin:
A. Only when the resident's family requests it
B. Only the day before discharge
C. At admission and continue as a team process throughout the stay
D. Only after the 100th day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Discharge planning is a resident-centered, interdisciplinary process that begins at admission, addresses
discharge goals and barriers, and coordinates supports for a safe transition home or to another setting.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 3
