NSG 552: PSYCHOPHARMACOLY
EXAM 1
COVERAGE : MODULES 1-3
2026/2027/2028 TESTING CYCLE
VERIFIED Q & A, WITH EXPERT RATIONALES
GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A+
Q1: Which brain structure serves as the primary relay station for motor information from the
basal ganglia and cerebellum to the cerebral cortex?
A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The thalamus relays motor information from the basal ganglia and cerebellum to the
cerebral cortex. It also relays sensory information (except smell).
Q2: A nurse is teaching a patient about GABA. Which statement by the patient indicates
understanding?
A. "GABA is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain."
B. "GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain."
C. "GABA increases neuronal firing."
D. "GABA is only found in the peripheral nervous system."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
central nervous system, reducing neuronal excitability.
,Q3: A nurse is reviewing the blood-brain barrier. Which statement is accurate?
A. It allows all medications to cross freely.
B. It is formed by astrocytes and tight junctions.
C. It is impermeable to all substances.
D. It only exists in the peripheral nervous system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The blood-brain barrier is formed by astrocytes and tight junctions between
endothelial cells. It selectively allows lipid-soluble and small molecules to cross while blocking
many harmful substances.
Q4: A medication has a therapeutic index of 2. What does this indicate?
A. The medication is very safe.
B. The medication has a narrow safety margin.
C. The medication has no side effects.
D. The medication is highly effective.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic index of 2 indicates a narrow safety margin between therapeutic and
toxic doses. Medications with low therapeutic indices (e.g., lithium, digoxin) require close
monitoring.
Q5: A nurse is teaching about first-pass metabolism. Which statement is accurate?
A. It occurs in the kidneys.
B. It occurs in the liver after oral absorption.
C. It increases drug bioavailability.
D. It only applies to IV medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs in the liver after a drug is absorbed from the GI tract,
reducing the amount of active drug that reaches systemic circulation.
Q6: A patient is prescribed clozapine and fluvoxamine. Which effect should the nurse anticipate?
, A. Decreased clozapine levels
B. Increased clozapine levels and toxicity
C. No interaction
D. Decreased fluvoxamine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluvoxamine is a potent CYP1A2 inhibitor. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2.
Combining these medications can significantly increase clozapine levels, leading to toxicity.
Q7: Which of the following are second-generation antipsychotics? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ziprasidone
B. Lurasidone
C. Haloperidol
D. Paliperidone
E. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Ziprasidone, lurasidone, and paliperidone are second-generation antipsychotics.
Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are first-generation.
Q8: A nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of lurasidone. Which statement is accurate?
A. It is a strong D2 blocker with high EPS risk.
B. It is a 5-HT2A/D2 antagonist with low EPS risk.
C. It is a partial D2 agonist.
D. It is an MAOI.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lurasidone is a second-generation antipsychotic that blocks 5-HT2A and D2 receptors
with low EPS risk. It is also approved for bipolar depression.
Q9: A patient on ziprasidone is at risk for which cardiac adverse effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. QTc prolongation
D. Heart block
EXAM 1
COVERAGE : MODULES 1-3
2026/2027/2028 TESTING CYCLE
VERIFIED Q & A, WITH EXPERT RATIONALES
GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A+
Q1: Which brain structure serves as the primary relay station for motor information from the
basal ganglia and cerebellum to the cerebral cortex?
A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The thalamus relays motor information from the basal ganglia and cerebellum to the
cerebral cortex. It also relays sensory information (except smell).
Q2: A nurse is teaching a patient about GABA. Which statement by the patient indicates
understanding?
A. "GABA is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain."
B. "GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain."
C. "GABA increases neuronal firing."
D. "GABA is only found in the peripheral nervous system."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
central nervous system, reducing neuronal excitability.
,Q3: A nurse is reviewing the blood-brain barrier. Which statement is accurate?
A. It allows all medications to cross freely.
B. It is formed by astrocytes and tight junctions.
C. It is impermeable to all substances.
D. It only exists in the peripheral nervous system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The blood-brain barrier is formed by astrocytes and tight junctions between
endothelial cells. It selectively allows lipid-soluble and small molecules to cross while blocking
many harmful substances.
Q4: A medication has a therapeutic index of 2. What does this indicate?
A. The medication is very safe.
B. The medication has a narrow safety margin.
C. The medication has no side effects.
D. The medication is highly effective.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic index of 2 indicates a narrow safety margin between therapeutic and
toxic doses. Medications with low therapeutic indices (e.g., lithium, digoxin) require close
monitoring.
Q5: A nurse is teaching about first-pass metabolism. Which statement is accurate?
A. It occurs in the kidneys.
B. It occurs in the liver after oral absorption.
C. It increases drug bioavailability.
D. It only applies to IV medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs in the liver after a drug is absorbed from the GI tract,
reducing the amount of active drug that reaches systemic circulation.
Q6: A patient is prescribed clozapine and fluvoxamine. Which effect should the nurse anticipate?
, A. Decreased clozapine levels
B. Increased clozapine levels and toxicity
C. No interaction
D. Decreased fluvoxamine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluvoxamine is a potent CYP1A2 inhibitor. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2.
Combining these medications can significantly increase clozapine levels, leading to toxicity.
Q7: Which of the following are second-generation antipsychotics? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ziprasidone
B. Lurasidone
C. Haloperidol
D. Paliperidone
E. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Ziprasidone, lurasidone, and paliperidone are second-generation antipsychotics.
Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are first-generation.
Q8: A nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of lurasidone. Which statement is accurate?
A. It is a strong D2 blocker with high EPS risk.
B. It is a 5-HT2A/D2 antagonist with low EPS risk.
C. It is a partial D2 agonist.
D. It is an MAOI.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lurasidone is a second-generation antipsychotic that blocks 5-HT2A and D2 receptors
with low EPS risk. It is also approved for bipolar depression.
Q9: A patient on ziprasidone is at risk for which cardiac adverse effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. QTc prolongation
D. Heart block
