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Examen

NR548 EXAM 2 Psychiatric Assessment for PMHNP|Weeks 3-4| Questions with Answers| Chamberlain| Score 100%

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NR548 EXAM 2 Psychiatric Assessment for PMHNP|Weeks 3-4| Questions with Answers| Chamberlain| Score 100%

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NR548 EXAM 2
Psychiatric Assessment for PMHNP
Questions with Answers| Chamberlain| Score 100%


1. A PMHNP is beginning a first psychiatric interview with a new client.
Which action best characterizes the opening phase of the interview?
A. Summarizing the treatment plan and next steps
B. Introducing oneself, clarifying roles, and orienting the client to the purpose
and structure of the visit
C. Asking detailed questions about childhood trauma
D. Administering a standardized depression rating scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The opening phase establishes the frame of the interview:
introductions, role clarification, confidentiality/limits, and orienting the client
to time and purpose. Detailed history-taking and trauma exploration belong to
the body phase, and summarizing/next steps belong to the closing phase.
2. During the body phase of the psychiatric interview, the primary focus is on:
A. Building initial rapport through small talk
B. Reviewing confidentiality and consent
C. Gathering the comprehensive psychiatric database, exploring symptoms, and
formulating a differential
D. Scheduling the next appointment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The body phase is the data-gathering core of the interview, where
the clinician systematically explores the chief complaint, history of present
illness, psychiatric and medical history, and mental status to develop a
differential diagnosis.

3. Which statement best reflects appropriate technique for the closing phase
of a psychiatric interview?
A. Introducing new topics to ensure nothing was missed
B. Summarizing key findings, checking the client's understanding, and outlining
the plan and follow-up
C. Asking the client to complete an intake form

, D. Conducting the mental status examination
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The closing phase consolidates the visit: summarizing findings,
confirming mutual understanding, addressing questions, and clarifying the plan,
safety measures, and follow-up. New topic exploration should not be introduced
late in the session.
4. A client is minimally verbal, answers only in one-word responses, and
avoids eye contact. Which technique is most appropriate for engaging this
reluctant client?
A. Confronting the client about their reluctance to talk
B. Using open-ended questions, silence, and nonverbal encouragement while
tolerating some ambiguity
C. Rapidly moving through a checklist of closed-ended questions
D. Terminating the interview and rescheduling
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: With a guarded or reluctant client, the PMHNP should slow the
pace, use open-ended and nonthreatening questions, allow silence, and use
nonverbal encouragers (nodding, leaning in) to build safety and trust rather
than pressuring or rapid-firing questions.
5. A client is highly talkative, tangential, and difficult to redirect. Which
strategy is most effective?
A. Allowing the client to talk without interruption for the entire session
B. Using gentle, respectful interruption, structured closed-ended questions, and
clear transition statements to redirect
C. Ignoring the client's answers and reading from a script
D. Ending the session early due to time constraints
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: With overly talkative or tangential clients, the clinician should
tactfully interrupt, provide structure with more closed-ended or focused
questions, and use verbal transitions ('I want to make sure I understand your
sleep - can we go back to that?') to keep the interview on track while remaining
respectful.
6. An angry, hostile client raises their voice and criticizes the clinic staff at the
start of the interview. What is the PMHNP's best initial response?
A. Match the client's tone to establish authority

, B. Remain calm, acknowledge the client's feelings, and avoid becoming
defensive
C. Immediately call security
D. Ignore the outburst and proceed with standard questions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: De-escalation begins with the clinician staying calm, validating the
client's emotional experience ('I can see you're frustrated'), and avoiding
defensiveness or power struggles, which helps reduce hostility and preserves
safety and rapport.
7. A client with paranoid ideation is suspicious of the clinician's motives.
Which approach is most therapeutic?
A. Pushing for rapid disclosure of delusional content
B. Maintaining a calm, honest, consistent, and non-intrusive stance while
respecting personal space
C. Agreeing with the client's paranoid beliefs to build trust
D. Using humor to lighten the mood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Paranoid clients respond best to a straightforward, predictable, and
honest approach with respect for physical and psychological boundaries;
challenging or colluding with delusions undermines trust and can escalate
suspiciousness.
8. A seductive client makes flirtatious comments during the interview. The
PMHNP's most appropriate response is to:
A. Respond playfully to maintain rapport
B. Set clear, professional boundaries while remaining respectful and
nonjudgmental
C. End the session immediately without explanation
D. Avoid addressing the behavior to prevent conflict
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Professional boundary-setting is essential; the clinician should
calmly and directly name the behavior, redirect to the clinical purpose of the
visit, and maintain a therapeutic, nonpunitive stance.
9. Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question
appropriate for the body phase of the interview?

, A. "Do you feel sad?"
B. "Tell me what has been going on for you lately."
C. "Are you sleeping more than eight hours?"
D. "Is your mood a 3 or a 7 out of 10?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended questions invite the client to elaborate in their own
words and are most useful early in the body phase to gather a broad narrative
before narrowing with closed-ended questions to clarify specifics.

10. A client becomes tearful when discussing a recent loss. The PMHNP
pauses and allows quiet before speaking again. This use of silence is best
described as:
A. A therapeutic communication technique that allows the client time to process
emotion
B. A sign of clinician disengagement
C. A breach of the interview structure
D. An error that should be corrected immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Purposeful silence is a therapeutic communication technique that
gives the client space to process feelings, organize thoughts, and continue
speaking, rather than being rushed.
11. Which factor is most important when interviewing a client who is acutely
psychotic and disorganized?
A. Conducting a lengthy, detailed developmental history first
B. Using short, simple, concrete questions and monitoring for safety throughout
C. Confronting inconsistencies in the client's story
D. Relying solely on collateral information and skipping the interview
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: With disorganized or psychotic clients, the interview must be
simplified into brief, concrete questions, paced to the client's tolerance, with
ongoing safety assessment, since lengthy or abstract questioning increases
confusion and distress.
12. A client who is guarded and hesitant to disclose substance use history is
most likely to open up when the clinician:
A. Threatens to withhold treatment unless full disclosure occurs

Información del documento

Subido en
25 de septiembre de 2026
Número de páginas
37
Escrito en
2026/2027
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