NUR 2502 / NUR2502 Final Exam (Latest ): Multidimensional
Care III / MDC 3 – Rasmussen | Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-
Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
Section 1: Foundations of Complex Multidimensional Care
Q1: A nursing student is reviewing hemodynamic monitoring. Which finding represents a
normal central venous pressure (CVP)?
A. 1 to 2 mm Hg
B. 8 to 12 mm Hg
C. 2 to 6 mm Hg [CORRECT]
D. 15 to 20 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because a normal CVP ranges from 2 to 6 mm Hg, reflecting
adequate right ventricular preload without indicating fluid overload or severe hypovolemia.
Q2: A patient with end-stage heart failure has a valid do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order but is
experiencing acute dyspnea. The family demands that the nurse "do everything" to save the
patient. What is the nurse's best initial action?
A. Administer CPR immediately to avoid a lawsuit.
B. Call the rapid response team to override the DNR.
C. Gently explain the DNR order to the family while providing aggressive comfort measures.
[CORRECT]
D. Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit for intubation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to gently explain the DNR order while providing comfort
measures, as this honors the patient's autonomy and legal advance directive while still
addressing the family's distress with compassionate care.
Q3: Which set of clinical findings meets the criteria for systemic inflammatory response
syndrome (SIRS)?
A. Temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 95 bpm, respiratory rate 18, WBC 10,000
B. Temperature 36.0°C, heart rate 105 bpm, respiratory rate 22, WBC 13,000 [CORRECT]
C. Temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20, WBC 9,000
D. Temperature 39.0°C, heart rate 90 bpm, respiratory rate 16, WBC 11,000
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the SIRS criteria, which requires at least two of the following:
temperature >38°C or <36°C, heart rate >90 bpm, respiratory rate >20 breaths/min, or WBC
>12,000 or <4,000.
Q4: During shift change, a nurse uses the SBAR tool to communicate a patient's
deteriorating status. Which statement represents the "Recommendation" component?
A. "The patient's blood pressure has dropped to 85/50 over the last hour."
B. "I am calling about Mr. Smith in room 402, who is post-op day two."
, C. "I believe he is developing septic shock and needs a fluid bolus and provider notification
immediately." [CORRECT]
D. "His history includes type 2 diabetes and a recent bowel resection."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the recommendation in SBAR clearly states what
the nurse believes is happening and what specific action or intervention is needed from the
provider.
Q5: A patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure is being assessed. Which
lung sound is most characteristic of this condition?
A. High-pitched wheezes bilaterally
B. Coarse crackles at the lung bases [CORRECT]
C. Pleural friction rub at the apex
D. Diminished breath sounds in the upper lobes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is coarse crackles at the lung bases, as this indicates fluid
accumulation in the alveoli (pulmonary edema), which is a hallmark of left-sided heart
failure.
Q6: A patient presents with a burn wound that appears mottled red and white, is blistered,
and is highly painful to light touch. How should the nurse classify this burn depth?
A. Superficial
B. Deep partial-thickness [CORRECT]
C. Full-thickness
D. Superficial partial-thickness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that deep partial-thickness burns involve the deeper
dermis, presenting with a mottled appearance, blisters, and significant pain due to exposed
nerve endings.
Q7: A patient refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The healthcare
team is conflicted. Which ethical principle is primarily being upheld by honoring the
patient's refusal?
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Autonomy [CORRECT]
D. Nonmaleficence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because autonomy respects the patient's fundamental right
to make informed decisions about their own body and medical care, even if the healthcare
team disagrees.
Q8: A nurse is screening patients on a medical-surgical unit for early signs of sepsis. Which
patient finding warrants the most immediate escalation using the qSOFA criteria?
A. Heart rate of 102 bpm and temperature of 38.1°C
B. Urine output of 25 mL/hr over the last two hours
C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and altered mental status [CORRECT]
Care III / MDC 3 – Rasmussen | Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-
Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
Section 1: Foundations of Complex Multidimensional Care
Q1: A nursing student is reviewing hemodynamic monitoring. Which finding represents a
normal central venous pressure (CVP)?
A. 1 to 2 mm Hg
B. 8 to 12 mm Hg
C. 2 to 6 mm Hg [CORRECT]
D. 15 to 20 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because a normal CVP ranges from 2 to 6 mm Hg, reflecting
adequate right ventricular preload without indicating fluid overload or severe hypovolemia.
Q2: A patient with end-stage heart failure has a valid do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order but is
experiencing acute dyspnea. The family demands that the nurse "do everything" to save the
patient. What is the nurse's best initial action?
A. Administer CPR immediately to avoid a lawsuit.
B. Call the rapid response team to override the DNR.
C. Gently explain the DNR order to the family while providing aggressive comfort measures.
[CORRECT]
D. Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit for intubation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to gently explain the DNR order while providing comfort
measures, as this honors the patient's autonomy and legal advance directive while still
addressing the family's distress with compassionate care.
Q3: Which set of clinical findings meets the criteria for systemic inflammatory response
syndrome (SIRS)?
A. Temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 95 bpm, respiratory rate 18, WBC 10,000
B. Temperature 36.0°C, heart rate 105 bpm, respiratory rate 22, WBC 13,000 [CORRECT]
C. Temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20, WBC 9,000
D. Temperature 39.0°C, heart rate 90 bpm, respiratory rate 16, WBC 11,000
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the SIRS criteria, which requires at least two of the following:
temperature >38°C or <36°C, heart rate >90 bpm, respiratory rate >20 breaths/min, or WBC
>12,000 or <4,000.
Q4: During shift change, a nurse uses the SBAR tool to communicate a patient's
deteriorating status. Which statement represents the "Recommendation" component?
A. "The patient's blood pressure has dropped to 85/50 over the last hour."
B. "I am calling about Mr. Smith in room 402, who is post-op day two."
, C. "I believe he is developing septic shock and needs a fluid bolus and provider notification
immediately." [CORRECT]
D. "His history includes type 2 diabetes and a recent bowel resection."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the recommendation in SBAR clearly states what
the nurse believes is happening and what specific action or intervention is needed from the
provider.
Q5: A patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure is being assessed. Which
lung sound is most characteristic of this condition?
A. High-pitched wheezes bilaterally
B. Coarse crackles at the lung bases [CORRECT]
C. Pleural friction rub at the apex
D. Diminished breath sounds in the upper lobes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is coarse crackles at the lung bases, as this indicates fluid
accumulation in the alveoli (pulmonary edema), which is a hallmark of left-sided heart
failure.
Q6: A patient presents with a burn wound that appears mottled red and white, is blistered,
and is highly painful to light touch. How should the nurse classify this burn depth?
A. Superficial
B. Deep partial-thickness [CORRECT]
C. Full-thickness
D. Superficial partial-thickness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that deep partial-thickness burns involve the deeper
dermis, presenting with a mottled appearance, blisters, and significant pain due to exposed
nerve endings.
Q7: A patient refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The healthcare
team is conflicted. Which ethical principle is primarily being upheld by honoring the
patient's refusal?
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Autonomy [CORRECT]
D. Nonmaleficence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because autonomy respects the patient's fundamental right
to make informed decisions about their own body and medical care, even if the healthcare
team disagrees.
Q8: A nurse is screening patients on a medical-surgical unit for early signs of sepsis. Which
patient finding warrants the most immediate escalation using the qSOFA criteria?
A. Heart rate of 102 bpm and temperature of 38.1°C
B. Urine output of 25 mL/hr over the last two hours
C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and altered mental status [CORRECT]
