NURS 5433
NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review: 82 Questions with
Correct Answers and Rationales
Gradegurus
This Exam Contains:
➢NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review
➢82 Questions with Correct Answers and Rationales
,NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review – Correct
Answers with Rationales
Below is a comprehensive review of the 82 questions from your Quizlet PDF, organized
with the question stem, multiple-choice options (A, B, C, D), the correct answer, and a
rationale. Note: Some questions in the original PDF were incomplete or had formatting
issues; I've reconstructed them as accurately as possible and noted where clarification
was needed.
MUSCULOSKELETAL & RHEUMATOLOGY
1. Which of the following is found early in the development of CKD?
A. Painless gross hematuria
B. Increased serum creatinine levels
C. Sudden onset of hypertension
D. Persistent albuminuria
Correct Answer: D. Persistent albuminuria
Rationale: Albuminuria is one of the earliest markers of chronic kidney disease (CKD),
often appearing before a significant rise in serum creatinine. Increased creatinine is a
later finding. Painless gross hematuria is more associated with bladder cancer.
Hypertension can be a cause or consequence of CKD but is not the earliest specific
finding.
2. Which of the following best describes the presentation of a
patient with complete medial meniscus tear?
,A. Decreased hand strength
B. Limited ROM of elbow
C. Muscle or ligament strain
D. Inability to kneel
Correct Answer: D. Inability to kneel
Rationale: A complete medial meniscus tear typically causes mechanical blocking, pain
with deep knee flexion, and an inability to kneel or squat. Hand strength and elbow ROM
are unrelated. Muscle or ligament strain is a general description, not specific to a
complete meniscus tear.
3. Patients with medial epicondylitis typically present with:
A. Limited ROM of elbow
B. Tingling in hands/numbness
C. Inability to kneel
D. Decreased grip strength
Correct Answer: D. Decreased grip strength
Rationale: Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) involves inflammation at the common
flexor tendon origin, causing pain with wrist flexion and decreased grip strength.
Tingling/numbness suggests nerve involvement (e.g., cubital tunnel). Limited elbow
ROM is not typical.
4. Which statements are correct regarding tendonitis?
A. Quadriceps strengthening exercises should be performed
B. Opioids
C. Acute pain results when firm pressure is applied to the tendon; tendonitis is usually
the result of overuse; signs include reduced ROM caused by stiffness and discomfort
D. Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7–10 days
, Correct Answer: C. Acute pain results when firm pressure is applied to the tendon;
tendonitis is usually the result of overuse; signs of tendonitis include reduced ROM
caused by stiffness and discomfort
Rationale: Tendonitis is an overuse injury characterized by localized pain with palpation,
stiffness, and reduced ROM. Quadriceps strengthening is more relevant for knee OA.
Opioids are not first-line. URI symptoms >7–10 days relates to sinusitis, not tendonitis.
5. Patients with subscapular bursitis typically present with:
A. Crepitus and swelling over the lateral epicondyle
B. Diffuse pain radiating down the arm to the wrist
C. Localized tenderness under the superomedial angle of the scapula
D. Tenderness and clicking in the shoulder joint
Correct Answer: C. Localized tenderness under the superomedial angle of the scapula
Rationale: Subscapular bursitis causes pain and tenderness deep to the scapula, often
worsened by shoulder movement. Lateral epicondyle findings suggest epicondylitis.
Diffuse radiating pain suggests radiculopathy.
6. First-line therapy for prepatellar bursitis should include:
A. Adding methotrexate to his regimen
B. Bursal aspiration
C. Knee splinting
D. Knee splinting
Correct Answer: B. Bursal aspiration (Note: The PDF lists "Knee splinting" twice; bursal
aspiration is the definitive first-line for septic or symptomatic prepatellar bursitis, though
rest, ice, and NSAIDs are conservative measures.)
Rationale: Prepatellar bursitis, especially when septic or tense, requires aspiration for
diagnosis and relief. Conservative therapy includes rest, ice, compression, and NSAIDs.
Methotrexate is for RA. Splinting may be adjunctive but not primary.
NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review: 82 Questions with
Correct Answers and Rationales
Gradegurus
This Exam Contains:
➢NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review
➢82 Questions with Correct Answers and Rationales
,NURS 5433 Family II Final Exam Review – Correct
Answers with Rationales
Below is a comprehensive review of the 82 questions from your Quizlet PDF, organized
with the question stem, multiple-choice options (A, B, C, D), the correct answer, and a
rationale. Note: Some questions in the original PDF were incomplete or had formatting
issues; I've reconstructed them as accurately as possible and noted where clarification
was needed.
MUSCULOSKELETAL & RHEUMATOLOGY
1. Which of the following is found early in the development of CKD?
A. Painless gross hematuria
B. Increased serum creatinine levels
C. Sudden onset of hypertension
D. Persistent albuminuria
Correct Answer: D. Persistent albuminuria
Rationale: Albuminuria is one of the earliest markers of chronic kidney disease (CKD),
often appearing before a significant rise in serum creatinine. Increased creatinine is a
later finding. Painless gross hematuria is more associated with bladder cancer.
Hypertension can be a cause or consequence of CKD but is not the earliest specific
finding.
2. Which of the following best describes the presentation of a
patient with complete medial meniscus tear?
,A. Decreased hand strength
B. Limited ROM of elbow
C. Muscle or ligament strain
D. Inability to kneel
Correct Answer: D. Inability to kneel
Rationale: A complete medial meniscus tear typically causes mechanical blocking, pain
with deep knee flexion, and an inability to kneel or squat. Hand strength and elbow ROM
are unrelated. Muscle or ligament strain is a general description, not specific to a
complete meniscus tear.
3. Patients with medial epicondylitis typically present with:
A. Limited ROM of elbow
B. Tingling in hands/numbness
C. Inability to kneel
D. Decreased grip strength
Correct Answer: D. Decreased grip strength
Rationale: Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) involves inflammation at the common
flexor tendon origin, causing pain with wrist flexion and decreased grip strength.
Tingling/numbness suggests nerve involvement (e.g., cubital tunnel). Limited elbow
ROM is not typical.
4. Which statements are correct regarding tendonitis?
A. Quadriceps strengthening exercises should be performed
B. Opioids
C. Acute pain results when firm pressure is applied to the tendon; tendonitis is usually
the result of overuse; signs include reduced ROM caused by stiffness and discomfort
D. Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7–10 days
, Correct Answer: C. Acute pain results when firm pressure is applied to the tendon;
tendonitis is usually the result of overuse; signs of tendonitis include reduced ROM
caused by stiffness and discomfort
Rationale: Tendonitis is an overuse injury characterized by localized pain with palpation,
stiffness, and reduced ROM. Quadriceps strengthening is more relevant for knee OA.
Opioids are not first-line. URI symptoms >7–10 days relates to sinusitis, not tendonitis.
5. Patients with subscapular bursitis typically present with:
A. Crepitus and swelling over the lateral epicondyle
B. Diffuse pain radiating down the arm to the wrist
C. Localized tenderness under the superomedial angle of the scapula
D. Tenderness and clicking in the shoulder joint
Correct Answer: C. Localized tenderness under the superomedial angle of the scapula
Rationale: Subscapular bursitis causes pain and tenderness deep to the scapula, often
worsened by shoulder movement. Lateral epicondyle findings suggest epicondylitis.
Diffuse radiating pain suggests radiculopathy.
6. First-line therapy for prepatellar bursitis should include:
A. Adding methotrexate to his regimen
B. Bursal aspiration
C. Knee splinting
D. Knee splinting
Correct Answer: B. Bursal aspiration (Note: The PDF lists "Knee splinting" twice; bursal
aspiration is the definitive first-line for septic or symptomatic prepatellar bursitis, though
rest, ice, and NSAIDs are conservative measures.)
Rationale: Prepatellar bursitis, especially when septic or tense, requires aspiration for
diagnosis and relief. Conservative therapy includes rest, ice, compression, and NSAIDs.
Methotrexate is for RA. Splinting may be adjunctive but not primary.
