NUR 210 Exam 1 V2 | NUR 210 Pharmacology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NUR 210 Exam 1) | Galen
1. A patient is prescribed a medication that has a half-life of 6 hours. If the patient takes a 200
mg dose at 0800, how much of the drug will remain in the patient’s system at 2000 the same
day?
A. 100 mg
B. 12.5 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: D
Rationale: The half-life of a drug is the time required for the concentration of the drug in
the plasma to decrease by 50 percent. In this scenario, 12 hours have passed between 0800
and 2000, which equals two half-lives (6 hours each). After the first half-life, 100 mg
remains, and after the second half-life, 50 mg remains in the system.
2. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected in a patient diagnosed with end-stage
renal disease?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Excretion
D. Metabolism
Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for the excretion of drugs and
their metabolites from the body. End-stage renal disease significantly impairs the filtration
and secretion capabilities of the nephrons. This impairment leads to decreased drug
clearance and a higher risk of toxicity due to accumulation.
3. When educating a patient about a new medication, the nurse explains that the drug is an
‘agonist.’ What does this term mean regarding the drug’s mechanism of action?
A. The drug binds to a receptor and produces a biological response.
B. The drug binds to a receptor and prevents a biological response.
C. The drug neutralizes other chemicals in the bloodstream.
D. The drug blocks the effects of endogenous hormones.
,Answer: A
Rationale: An agonist is a molecule that mimics the action of a naturally occurring
substance by binding to and activating a specific receptor. This binding triggers a
physiological or biochemical response within the cell. Antagonists, conversely, bind to
receptors to inhibit or block a response.
4. A nurse is administering a medication that has a very narrow therapeutic index. What is
the most important nursing intervention for this patient?
A. Administer the medication only on an empty stomach.
B. Monitor serum drug levels frequently.
C. Ensure the patient drinks at least 2 liters of water daily.
D. Check the patient’s blood pressure before administration.
Answer: B
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index indicates that the difference between a therapeutic
dose and a toxic dose is very small. Because of this, small changes in drug concentration can
lead to significant clinical consequences or toxicity. Frequent monitoring of serum drug
levels is essential to ensure efficacy while avoiding dangerous adverse effects.
5. Which route of medication administration provides the highest bioavailability?
A. Oral (PO)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Subcutaneous (SQ)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Answer: D
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug
that reaches the systemic circulation. When a drug is given intravenously, it enters the
bloodstream directly, resulting in 100% bioavailability. Other routes like oral
administration are subject to the first-pass effect, which significantly reduces the amount of
active drug available.
6. A patient with low serum albumin levels is receiving a drug that is highly protein-bound.
The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
A. Signs of drug toxicity
B. Inadequate therapeutic response
C. Increased rate of drug excretion
D. Reduced drug absorption in the GI tract
, Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs that are highly protein-bound normally circulate in the blood attached to
albumin, leaving only a small ‘free’ portion to produce effects. If a patient has low albumin,
there are fewer binding sites, resulting in a higher concentration of free, active drug. This
increase in free drug significantly raises the risk of drug toxicity.
7. Which of the following describes the ‘First-Pass Effect’?
A. The metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
B. The initial distribution of a drug to the heart and brain.
C. The time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration.
D. The excretion of a drug by the kidneys during the first hour after administration.
Answer: A
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when drugs absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
pass through the portal vein into the liver. The liver may extensively metabolize the drug
before it ever reaches the rest of the body. This phenomenon is why oral doses of certain
medications are much higher than their parenteral counterparts.
8. Under the Controlled Substances Act, which schedule of drugs has the highest potential for
abuse but also has an accepted medical use?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe
psychological or physical dependence, but they have currently accepted medical uses.
Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential but no accepted medical use in the
United States. Schedules III, IV, and V have progressively lower potentials for abuse.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug that is classified as Pregnancy Category X. What is
the priority action for the nurse?
A. Administer the drug and monitor the patient’s vitals.
B. Advise the patient to take the drug with food.
C. Inform the patient that the drug is safe during the third trimester.
D. Ensure the patient is not pregnant and is using effective contraception.
Answer: D
Rationale (NUR 210 Exam 1) | Galen
1. A patient is prescribed a medication that has a half-life of 6 hours. If the patient takes a 200
mg dose at 0800, how much of the drug will remain in the patient’s system at 2000 the same
day?
A. 100 mg
B. 12.5 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: D
Rationale: The half-life of a drug is the time required for the concentration of the drug in
the plasma to decrease by 50 percent. In this scenario, 12 hours have passed between 0800
and 2000, which equals two half-lives (6 hours each). After the first half-life, 100 mg
remains, and after the second half-life, 50 mg remains in the system.
2. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected in a patient diagnosed with end-stage
renal disease?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Excretion
D. Metabolism
Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for the excretion of drugs and
their metabolites from the body. End-stage renal disease significantly impairs the filtration
and secretion capabilities of the nephrons. This impairment leads to decreased drug
clearance and a higher risk of toxicity due to accumulation.
3. When educating a patient about a new medication, the nurse explains that the drug is an
‘agonist.’ What does this term mean regarding the drug’s mechanism of action?
A. The drug binds to a receptor and produces a biological response.
B. The drug binds to a receptor and prevents a biological response.
C. The drug neutralizes other chemicals in the bloodstream.
D. The drug blocks the effects of endogenous hormones.
,Answer: A
Rationale: An agonist is a molecule that mimics the action of a naturally occurring
substance by binding to and activating a specific receptor. This binding triggers a
physiological or biochemical response within the cell. Antagonists, conversely, bind to
receptors to inhibit or block a response.
4. A nurse is administering a medication that has a very narrow therapeutic index. What is
the most important nursing intervention for this patient?
A. Administer the medication only on an empty stomach.
B. Monitor serum drug levels frequently.
C. Ensure the patient drinks at least 2 liters of water daily.
D. Check the patient’s blood pressure before administration.
Answer: B
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index indicates that the difference between a therapeutic
dose and a toxic dose is very small. Because of this, small changes in drug concentration can
lead to significant clinical consequences or toxicity. Frequent monitoring of serum drug
levels is essential to ensure efficacy while avoiding dangerous adverse effects.
5. Which route of medication administration provides the highest bioavailability?
A. Oral (PO)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Subcutaneous (SQ)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Answer: D
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug
that reaches the systemic circulation. When a drug is given intravenously, it enters the
bloodstream directly, resulting in 100% bioavailability. Other routes like oral
administration are subject to the first-pass effect, which significantly reduces the amount of
active drug available.
6. A patient with low serum albumin levels is receiving a drug that is highly protein-bound.
The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
A. Signs of drug toxicity
B. Inadequate therapeutic response
C. Increased rate of drug excretion
D. Reduced drug absorption in the GI tract
, Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs that are highly protein-bound normally circulate in the blood attached to
albumin, leaving only a small ‘free’ portion to produce effects. If a patient has low albumin,
there are fewer binding sites, resulting in a higher concentration of free, active drug. This
increase in free drug significantly raises the risk of drug toxicity.
7. Which of the following describes the ‘First-Pass Effect’?
A. The metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
B. The initial distribution of a drug to the heart and brain.
C. The time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration.
D. The excretion of a drug by the kidneys during the first hour after administration.
Answer: A
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when drugs absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
pass through the portal vein into the liver. The liver may extensively metabolize the drug
before it ever reaches the rest of the body. This phenomenon is why oral doses of certain
medications are much higher than their parenteral counterparts.
8. Under the Controlled Substances Act, which schedule of drugs has the highest potential for
abuse but also has an accepted medical use?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe
psychological or physical dependence, but they have currently accepted medical uses.
Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential but no accepted medical use in the
United States. Schedules III, IV, and V have progressively lower potentials for abuse.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug that is classified as Pregnancy Category X. What is
the priority action for the nurse?
A. Administer the drug and monitor the patient’s vitals.
B. Advise the patient to take the drug with food.
C. Inform the patient that the drug is safe during the third trimester.
D. Ensure the patient is not pregnant and is using effective contraception.
Answer: D
