A+ VERIFIED
H E A LT H C A R E L I C E N S U R E · O B J E C T I V E A S S E S S M E N T
Florida NHA Practice Test and Florida NHA Laws and
Rules Practice Test — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
Q UE STIONS SE CTIONS RATIONALE S
A+ 6 100%
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Federal & State Regulations
02 Leadership & Management
03 Financial Management
04 Resident Care & Quality Assurance
05 Human Resources & Ethics
06 Florida Laws & Rules
AB OUT TH I S AS S ES S MENT
Build mastery in Florida nursing home administration — from federal and state regulations and leadership principles to
financial management, resident care quality assurance, human resources, and Florida-specific laws and rules. This
original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the FL NHA licensure examination, with full rationales for
every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PA SSI NG SC ORE LE V E L F ORM AT
75% Advanced (Licensure) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: FEDERAL & STATE REGULATIONS
Q1. A skilled nursing facility in Florida is preparing for its annual federal survey under CMS requirements. The administrator asks
the survey coordinator which federal regulation sets the minimum staffing requirements for nursing services. The coordinator
reviews 42 CFR Part 483. Which federal standard establishes the requirement that facilities must have sufficient nursing staff to
meet resident needs?
A. 42 CFR 483.35, which addresses dietary services.
B. 42 CFR 483.12, which addresses admission practices.
C. 42 CFR 483.10, which addresses resident rights.
D. 42 CFR 483.30, which requires sufficient nursing staff with appropriate competencies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:42 CFR 483.30 specifically addresses nursing services and requires that facilities have sufficient nursing staff with the
appropriate competencies to meet residents' needs. This regulation sets minimum staffing standards including the requirement for a
licensed nurse on duty 24 hours per day and an RN Director of Nursing.
Q2. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the Medicare and Medicaid conditions of
participation. The administrator notes that a resident was transferred to the hospital without prior physician notification
documented in the medical record. Under 42 CFR 483.15, which resident right was potentially violated?
A. The right to participate in social activities.
B. The right to choose a personal physician.
C. The right to manage personal funds.
D. The right to be transferred or discharged only under specific conditions with proper notice.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:42 CFR 483.15 governs transfer and discharge requirements, mandating that facilities may only transfer or discharge residents
under specific conditions (such as medical needs, safety, or non-payment) and must provide proper advance notice and documentation.
Transferring without proper physician notification and documentation violates these protections.
Q3. A long-term care facility receives a deficiency citation at the immediate jeopardy level during a CMS survey. The administrator
asks the surveyor about the required timeline for corrective action. Under CMS enforcement regulations, what is the maximum
time frame for correcting an immediate jeopardy deficiency?
A. 30 days from the date of the survey report.
B. 45 days from the date of the deficiency citation.
C. Immediate correction is required, typically within 23 days of the citation.
D. 60 days from the date of the plan of correction submission.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:Immediate jeopardy deficiencies represent a situation where immediate corrective action is necessary because the facility's
noncompliance has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, or death to a resident. CMS requires correction within 23 days, and
the facility must take immediate action to remove the jeopardy.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 1
,Q4. A facility is developing its policies for resident trust funds. The administrator reviews federal regulations to determine the
requirements for managing resident personal funds. Under 42 CFR 483.10, which statement accurately describes the facility's
obligation regarding resident personal funds?
A. The facility must deposit resident funds over $50 in an interest-bearing account separate from facility operating accounts.
B. The facility may commingle resident funds with facility operating accounts if documented.
C. The facility is not required to provide an accounting of resident funds.
D. The facility may charge fees for managing resident funds without disclosure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:42 CFR 483.10 requires that facilities deposit resident personal funds exceeding $50 in an interest-bearing account that is
separate from the facility's operating accounts. The facility must maintain a full and complete accounting of all resident funds, provide
quarterly statements, and may not charge fees without disclosure.
Q5. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the Affordable Care Act's requirements for reporting
suspected crimes. A certified nursing assistant reported witnessing a colleague physically abusing a resident. Under the ACA's
elder justice provisions, what is the reporting timeline for this suspected crime?
A. Report within 24 hours to the state survey agency.
B. Report within 72 hours to the state ombudsman.
C. Report within 48 hours to local law enforcement.
D. Report within 2 hours if serious bodily injury occurred, or within 24 hours if no serious injury occurred.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:The Affordable Care Act Section 1150B requires long-term care facilities to report any suspected crime to the state survey
agency and at least one law enforcement entity within 2 hours if the suspected crime involves serious bodily injury, or within 24 hours if
it does not involve serious bodily injury. Failure to report can result in civil monetary penalties.
Q6. A skilled nursing facility participates in the Medicare Five-Star Quality Rating System. The administrator reviews the facility's
health inspection score, staffing score, and quality measures score. Which statement best describes how the overall Five-Star
rating is calculated?
A. The overall rating is the arithmetic average of all three domain scores.
B. The overall rating is determined solely by the quality measure score.
C. The staffing score is the primary determinant of the overall rating.
D. The health inspection score serves as the starting point, and staffing and quality measure scores can only raise or lower the rating by
one star each.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:CMS calculates the overall Five-Star rating by starting with the health inspection score (which carries the most weight), then
adjusting up or down by one star based on the staffing score, and further adjusting by one star based on the quality measure score. The
health inspection rating is the foundation of the overall rating.
Q7. A facility administrator receives notification that a resident has requested a hearing to appeal a discharge decision. Under 42
CFR 483.15, what is the facility's obligation regarding the resident's right to appeal a transfer or discharge?
A. The facility may proceed with discharge regardless of the appeal.
B. Only the resident's family may file an appeal.
C. The resident has the right to appeal the transfer or discharge to the state, and the facility must provide written notice of appeal rights.
D. Appeals are only permitted for Medicaid-funded residents.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:42 CFR 483.15 requires that facilities provide residents with written notice of transfer or discharge decisions, including the
reason, effective date, and the resident's right to appeal to the state. The facility must provide information about how to file an appeal and
may not proceed with discharge during a pending appeal in most circumstances.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q8. A long-term care facility is subject to an unannounced federal survey. The survey team requests to review the facility's
emergency preparedness plan. Under 42 CFR 483.73, which component is required as part of the facility's emergency
preparedness program?
A. A pandemic response plan reviewed every five years.
B. A fire safety plan and evacuation drill conducted annually.
C. An emergency plan, policies, communication plan, and training and testing program.
D. A weather emergency plan approved by the state health department.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:42 CFR 483.73 requires Medicare and Medicaid-participating facilities to develop and maintain a comprehensive emergency
preparedness program that includes an emergency plan, policies and procedures, a communication plan, and a training and testing
program. Facilities must conduct exercises annually and review plans biennially.
Q9. A facility is cited for an F-tag deficiency related to infection control. The administrator reviews the citation and notes it
references F441. Which area of care does this F-tag address?
A. Infection control program requirements.
B. Pressure ulcer prevention and treatment.
C. Medication storage and administration.
D. Physical environment and safety.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:F-tag 441 (now renumbered under the revised regulations as part of 483.80) addresses the facility's infection control program.
It requires facilities to establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary, and
comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of disease.
Q10. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the federal requirement for nurse aide training and
competency evaluation. Under 42 CFR 483, which statement accurately describes the requirement for nurse aide competency?
A. Nurse aides must complete a 120-hour training program within 6 months of employment.
B. Nurse aides must complete a 75-hour training program and pass a competency evaluation within 4 months of employment.
C. Nurse aides are not required to complete any formal training.
D. Nurse aides must pass a competency evaluation before any patient contact.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Federal regulations require nurse aides to complete a minimum 75-hour training program and pass a competency evaluation
program within 4 months of employment (unless they have been determined competent by the state). This requirement ensures that aides
providing direct care to residents have minimum knowledge and skills.
Q11. A facility administrator reviews the Medicare Benefit Policy Manual to understand coverage requirements for skilled nursing
facility services. A resident's family asks what determines whether Medicare Part A will cover the resident's SNF stay. Which
criterion is most critical for Medicare Part A SNF coverage?
A. The resident must be over 65 years old and have chronic care needs.
B. The resident must have a 3-day observation stay in the hospital.
C. The resident must have a 3-day inpatient hospital stay within the 30 days preceding SNF admission and require skilled care.
D. The resident must have a physician's order for nursing home placement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:Medicare Part A covers SNF services when the beneficiary has had a 3-day inpatient hospital stay (not counting the day of
discharge) within the 30 days preceding SNF admission, and requires skilled nursing or rehabilitation services. The 3-day stay must be
inpatient, not observation, and the resident must need skilled care that can only be provided in a SNF setting.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
H E A LT H C A R E L I C E N S U R E · O B J E C T I V E A S S E S S M E N T
Florida NHA Practice Test and Florida NHA Laws and
Rules Practice Test — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
Q UE STIONS SE CTIONS RATIONALE S
A+ 6 100%
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Federal & State Regulations
02 Leadership & Management
03 Financial Management
04 Resident Care & Quality Assurance
05 Human Resources & Ethics
06 Florida Laws & Rules
AB OUT TH I S AS S ES S MENT
Build mastery in Florida nursing home administration — from federal and state regulations and leadership principles to
financial management, resident care quality assurance, human resources, and Florida-specific laws and rules. This
original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the FL NHA licensure examination, with full rationales for
every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PA SSI NG SC ORE LE V E L F ORM AT
75% Advanced (Licensure) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: FEDERAL & STATE REGULATIONS
Q1. A skilled nursing facility in Florida is preparing for its annual federal survey under CMS requirements. The administrator asks
the survey coordinator which federal regulation sets the minimum staffing requirements for nursing services. The coordinator
reviews 42 CFR Part 483. Which federal standard establishes the requirement that facilities must have sufficient nursing staff to
meet resident needs?
A. 42 CFR 483.35, which addresses dietary services.
B. 42 CFR 483.12, which addresses admission practices.
C. 42 CFR 483.10, which addresses resident rights.
D. 42 CFR 483.30, which requires sufficient nursing staff with appropriate competencies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:42 CFR 483.30 specifically addresses nursing services and requires that facilities have sufficient nursing staff with the
appropriate competencies to meet residents' needs. This regulation sets minimum staffing standards including the requirement for a
licensed nurse on duty 24 hours per day and an RN Director of Nursing.
Q2. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the Medicare and Medicaid conditions of
participation. The administrator notes that a resident was transferred to the hospital without prior physician notification
documented in the medical record. Under 42 CFR 483.15, which resident right was potentially violated?
A. The right to participate in social activities.
B. The right to choose a personal physician.
C. The right to manage personal funds.
D. The right to be transferred or discharged only under specific conditions with proper notice.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:42 CFR 483.15 governs transfer and discharge requirements, mandating that facilities may only transfer or discharge residents
under specific conditions (such as medical needs, safety, or non-payment) and must provide proper advance notice and documentation.
Transferring without proper physician notification and documentation violates these protections.
Q3. A long-term care facility receives a deficiency citation at the immediate jeopardy level during a CMS survey. The administrator
asks the surveyor about the required timeline for corrective action. Under CMS enforcement regulations, what is the maximum
time frame for correcting an immediate jeopardy deficiency?
A. 30 days from the date of the survey report.
B. 45 days from the date of the deficiency citation.
C. Immediate correction is required, typically within 23 days of the citation.
D. 60 days from the date of the plan of correction submission.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:Immediate jeopardy deficiencies represent a situation where immediate corrective action is necessary because the facility's
noncompliance has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, or death to a resident. CMS requires correction within 23 days, and
the facility must take immediate action to remove the jeopardy.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 1
,Q4. A facility is developing its policies for resident trust funds. The administrator reviews federal regulations to determine the
requirements for managing resident personal funds. Under 42 CFR 483.10, which statement accurately describes the facility's
obligation regarding resident personal funds?
A. The facility must deposit resident funds over $50 in an interest-bearing account separate from facility operating accounts.
B. The facility may commingle resident funds with facility operating accounts if documented.
C. The facility is not required to provide an accounting of resident funds.
D. The facility may charge fees for managing resident funds without disclosure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:42 CFR 483.10 requires that facilities deposit resident personal funds exceeding $50 in an interest-bearing account that is
separate from the facility's operating accounts. The facility must maintain a full and complete accounting of all resident funds, provide
quarterly statements, and may not charge fees without disclosure.
Q5. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the Affordable Care Act's requirements for reporting
suspected crimes. A certified nursing assistant reported witnessing a colleague physically abusing a resident. Under the ACA's
elder justice provisions, what is the reporting timeline for this suspected crime?
A. Report within 24 hours to the state survey agency.
B. Report within 72 hours to the state ombudsman.
C. Report within 48 hours to local law enforcement.
D. Report within 2 hours if serious bodily injury occurred, or within 24 hours if no serious injury occurred.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:The Affordable Care Act Section 1150B requires long-term care facilities to report any suspected crime to the state survey
agency and at least one law enforcement entity within 2 hours if the suspected crime involves serious bodily injury, or within 24 hours if
it does not involve serious bodily injury. Failure to report can result in civil monetary penalties.
Q6. A skilled nursing facility participates in the Medicare Five-Star Quality Rating System. The administrator reviews the facility's
health inspection score, staffing score, and quality measures score. Which statement best describes how the overall Five-Star
rating is calculated?
A. The overall rating is the arithmetic average of all three domain scores.
B. The overall rating is determined solely by the quality measure score.
C. The staffing score is the primary determinant of the overall rating.
D. The health inspection score serves as the starting point, and staffing and quality measure scores can only raise or lower the rating by
one star each.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:CMS calculates the overall Five-Star rating by starting with the health inspection score (which carries the most weight), then
adjusting up or down by one star based on the staffing score, and further adjusting by one star based on the quality measure score. The
health inspection rating is the foundation of the overall rating.
Q7. A facility administrator receives notification that a resident has requested a hearing to appeal a discharge decision. Under 42
CFR 483.15, what is the facility's obligation regarding the resident's right to appeal a transfer or discharge?
A. The facility may proceed with discharge regardless of the appeal.
B. Only the resident's family may file an appeal.
C. The resident has the right to appeal the transfer or discharge to the state, and the facility must provide written notice of appeal rights.
D. Appeals are only permitted for Medicaid-funded residents.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:42 CFR 483.15 requires that facilities provide residents with written notice of transfer or discharge decisions, including the
reason, effective date, and the resident's right to appeal to the state. The facility must provide information about how to file an appeal and
may not proceed with discharge during a pending appeal in most circumstances.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q8. A long-term care facility is subject to an unannounced federal survey. The survey team requests to review the facility's
emergency preparedness plan. Under 42 CFR 483.73, which component is required as part of the facility's emergency
preparedness program?
A. A pandemic response plan reviewed every five years.
B. A fire safety plan and evacuation drill conducted annually.
C. An emergency plan, policies, communication plan, and training and testing program.
D. A weather emergency plan approved by the state health department.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:42 CFR 483.73 requires Medicare and Medicaid-participating facilities to develop and maintain a comprehensive emergency
preparedness program that includes an emergency plan, policies and procedures, a communication plan, and a training and testing
program. Facilities must conduct exercises annually and review plans biennially.
Q9. A facility is cited for an F-tag deficiency related to infection control. The administrator reviews the citation and notes it
references F441. Which area of care does this F-tag address?
A. Infection control program requirements.
B. Pressure ulcer prevention and treatment.
C. Medication storage and administration.
D. Physical environment and safety.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:F-tag 441 (now renumbered under the revised regulations as part of 483.80) addresses the facility's infection control program.
It requires facilities to establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary, and
comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of disease.
Q10. A nursing home administrator is reviewing the facility's compliance with the federal requirement for nurse aide training and
competency evaluation. Under 42 CFR 483, which statement accurately describes the requirement for nurse aide competency?
A. Nurse aides must complete a 120-hour training program within 6 months of employment.
B. Nurse aides must complete a 75-hour training program and pass a competency evaluation within 4 months of employment.
C. Nurse aides are not required to complete any formal training.
D. Nurse aides must pass a competency evaluation before any patient contact.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Federal regulations require nurse aides to complete a minimum 75-hour training program and pass a competency evaluation
program within 4 months of employment (unless they have been determined competent by the state). This requirement ensures that aides
providing direct care to residents have minimum knowledge and skills.
Q11. A facility administrator reviews the Medicare Benefit Policy Manual to understand coverage requirements for skilled nursing
facility services. A resident's family asks what determines whether Medicare Part A will cover the resident's SNF stay. Which
criterion is most critical for Medicare Part A SNF coverage?
A. The resident must be over 65 years old and have chronic care needs.
B. The resident must have a 3-day observation stay in the hospital.
C. The resident must have a 3-day inpatient hospital stay within the 30 days preceding SNF admission and require skilled care.
D. The resident must have a physician's order for nursing home placement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:Medicare Part A covers SNF services when the beneficiary has had a 3-day inpatient hospital stay (not counting the day of
discharge) within the 30 days preceding SNF admission, and requires skilled nursing or rehabilitation services. The 3-day stay must be
inpatient, not observation, and the resident must need skilled care that can only be provided in a SNF setting.
STUVI A ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
