NUR 2058 Exam 2 Actual Exam V1 | NUR 2058 Dimensions of Nursing
Practice (NUR2058 Exam 2) | Rasmussen
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious
beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s right to make this decision. Which ethical principle is
the nurse primarily demonstrating?
A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
Answer: D
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make decisions about their own
healthcare. By supporting the patient’s refusal of treatment based on their beliefs, the
nurse respects their self-determination. This is a core component of professional nursing
ethics regarding individual choice.
2. Which of the following scenarios best describes the legal concept of ‘Battery’ in a
healthcare setting?
A. A nurse threatens to restrain a patient if they do not take their medication.
B. A nurse documents false information in a patient’s medical record.
C. A nurse performs a surgical procedure on a patient without obtaining informed consent.
D. A nurse fails to check the patient’s ID band before administering a medication.
Answer: C
Rationale: Battery is the intentional and wrongful physical contact with a person without
their consent that entails injury or offensive touching. Performing a procedure without
consent qualifies as battery. In contrast, a threat without contact is considered assault.
3. A nurse is delegating tasks to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Assisting a stable patient with ambulation to the bathroom.
B. Evaluating the effectiveness of an anti-hypertensive medication.
C. Assessing a patient’s pain level after surgery.
D. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.
Answer: A
,Rationale: UAPs can perform tasks that are routine and do not require clinical judgment or
assessment. Assisting a stable patient with ambulation is within their scope of practice.
Assessment, evaluation, and teaching are responsibilities of the Registered Nurse.
4. According to Patricia Benner’s ‘Novice to Expert’ theory, a nurse who has been on the same
unit for 2-3 years and can coordinate multiple complex care demands is at which level?
A. Advanced Beginner
B. Expert
C. Proficient
D. Competent
Answer: D
Rationale: The ‘Competent’ stage is typically reached after 2 to 3 years in the same clinical
position. At this level, the nurse is able to plan and organize care efficiently. They have a
conscious and deliberate planning approach to their practice.
5. A nurse notices a coworker is documenting care that was never provided. What is the
nurse’s first professional responsibility?
A. Ignore the behavior to maintain a good working relationship.
B. Confront the coworker in front of the patient.
C. Document the coworker’s actions in the patient’s chart.
D. Report the observation to the nurse manager or supervisor.
Answer: D
Rationale: Professional integrity and patient safety require the nurse to report unethical
behavior and falsified documentation. This action follows the chain of command and
protects the patient and the institution. Failure to report such actions can lead to legal and
ethical complications for the entire team.
6. A nurse is using the SBAR tool to communicate with a physician. Which statement
represents the ‘B’ in SBAR?
A. The patient’s blood pressure is currently 100/60.
B. The patient has a history of congestive heart failure and was admitted two days ago.
C. I am calling because the patient is experiencing new onset shortness of breath.
D. I suggest we order a chest X-ray and an EKG.
Answer: B
, Rationale: SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. The
‘B’ (Background) provides relevant clinical history related to the current situation.
Providing the patient’s diagnosis and admission history sets the context for the urgent call.
7. Which element is essential for a legal claim of nursing malpractice to be successful?
A. A breach of duty must have occurred that directly caused injury.
B. The patient must have a previous history of lawsuits.
C. The nurse must have intended to cause harm.
D. The nurse must be working in a specialty area like the ICU.
Answer: A
Rationale: Malpractice requires four elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and
damages (injury). The plaintiff must prove that the nurse’s failure to meet the standard of
care directly resulted in harm. Intent to harm is not required for a negligence or
malpractice claim.
8. A patient is scheduled for an elective surgery. Who is legally responsible for explaining the
risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure?
A. The surgeon
B. The pre-operative nurse
C. The nurse manager
D. The surgical technician
Answer: A
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure (the surgeon) is legally responsible for
obtaining informed consent. They must explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the
patient. The nurse’s role is typically to witness the signature and ensure the patient
understands their rights.
9. A nurse speaks up when they observe a break in sterile technique during a central line
insertion. This action is an example of which QSEN competency?
A. Patient-Centered Care
B. Safety
C. Informatics
D. Evidence-Based Practice
Answer: B
Rationale: The Safety competency focuses on minimizing risk of harm to patients and
providers through both system effectiveness and individual performance. Speaking up
Practice (NUR2058 Exam 2) | Rasmussen
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious
beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s right to make this decision. Which ethical principle is
the nurse primarily demonstrating?
A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
Answer: D
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make decisions about their own
healthcare. By supporting the patient’s refusal of treatment based on their beliefs, the
nurse respects their self-determination. This is a core component of professional nursing
ethics regarding individual choice.
2. Which of the following scenarios best describes the legal concept of ‘Battery’ in a
healthcare setting?
A. A nurse threatens to restrain a patient if they do not take their medication.
B. A nurse documents false information in a patient’s medical record.
C. A nurse performs a surgical procedure on a patient without obtaining informed consent.
D. A nurse fails to check the patient’s ID band before administering a medication.
Answer: C
Rationale: Battery is the intentional and wrongful physical contact with a person without
their consent that entails injury or offensive touching. Performing a procedure without
consent qualifies as battery. In contrast, a threat without contact is considered assault.
3. A nurse is delegating tasks to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Assisting a stable patient with ambulation to the bathroom.
B. Evaluating the effectiveness of an anti-hypertensive medication.
C. Assessing a patient’s pain level after surgery.
D. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.
Answer: A
,Rationale: UAPs can perform tasks that are routine and do not require clinical judgment or
assessment. Assisting a stable patient with ambulation is within their scope of practice.
Assessment, evaluation, and teaching are responsibilities of the Registered Nurse.
4. According to Patricia Benner’s ‘Novice to Expert’ theory, a nurse who has been on the same
unit for 2-3 years and can coordinate multiple complex care demands is at which level?
A. Advanced Beginner
B. Expert
C. Proficient
D. Competent
Answer: D
Rationale: The ‘Competent’ stage is typically reached after 2 to 3 years in the same clinical
position. At this level, the nurse is able to plan and organize care efficiently. They have a
conscious and deliberate planning approach to their practice.
5. A nurse notices a coworker is documenting care that was never provided. What is the
nurse’s first professional responsibility?
A. Ignore the behavior to maintain a good working relationship.
B. Confront the coworker in front of the patient.
C. Document the coworker’s actions in the patient’s chart.
D. Report the observation to the nurse manager or supervisor.
Answer: D
Rationale: Professional integrity and patient safety require the nurse to report unethical
behavior and falsified documentation. This action follows the chain of command and
protects the patient and the institution. Failure to report such actions can lead to legal and
ethical complications for the entire team.
6. A nurse is using the SBAR tool to communicate with a physician. Which statement
represents the ‘B’ in SBAR?
A. The patient’s blood pressure is currently 100/60.
B. The patient has a history of congestive heart failure and was admitted two days ago.
C. I am calling because the patient is experiencing new onset shortness of breath.
D. I suggest we order a chest X-ray and an EKG.
Answer: B
, Rationale: SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. The
‘B’ (Background) provides relevant clinical history related to the current situation.
Providing the patient’s diagnosis and admission history sets the context for the urgent call.
7. Which element is essential for a legal claim of nursing malpractice to be successful?
A. A breach of duty must have occurred that directly caused injury.
B. The patient must have a previous history of lawsuits.
C. The nurse must have intended to cause harm.
D. The nurse must be working in a specialty area like the ICU.
Answer: A
Rationale: Malpractice requires four elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and
damages (injury). The plaintiff must prove that the nurse’s failure to meet the standard of
care directly resulted in harm. Intent to harm is not required for a negligence or
malpractice claim.
8. A patient is scheduled for an elective surgery. Who is legally responsible for explaining the
risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure?
A. The surgeon
B. The pre-operative nurse
C. The nurse manager
D. The surgical technician
Answer: A
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure (the surgeon) is legally responsible for
obtaining informed consent. They must explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the
patient. The nurse’s role is typically to witness the signature and ensure the patient
understands their rights.
9. A nurse speaks up when they observe a break in sterile technique during a central line
insertion. This action is an example of which QSEN competency?
A. Patient-Centered Care
B. Safety
C. Informatics
D. Evidence-Based Practice
Answer: B
Rationale: The Safety competency focuses on minimizing risk of harm to patients and
providers through both system effectiveness and individual performance. Speaking up
