MSNC 505 WEEK 3: ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF
CARDIOVASCULAR AND
HEMATOLOGIC SYSTEMS. QUESTIONS
AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS JUST
RELEASED
1. In the context of chronic heart failure, which mechanism is primarily responsible for
ventricular remodeling?
A. Short-term sympathetic nervous system activation
B. Decreased production of Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
C. Direct action of Angiotensin II and Aldosterone on myocytes
D. Acute increase in preload and myocardial stretch
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Ventricular remodeling is a long-term structural change driven
by the neurohormonal effects of the RAAS system, specifically Angiotensin II and
Aldosterone, which cause myocyte hypertrophy and fibrosis.
2. Which cellular finding is considered diagnostic for Hodgkin Lymphoma?
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
,B. Philadelphia chromosome
C. Auer rods
D. Bence-Jones proteins
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, multinucleated B cells
(often described as ‘owl-eyed’), are the hallmark of Hodgkin lymphoma.
3. Which type of shock is characterized by a high cardiac output and a significantly low
systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Obstructive shock
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Septic shock is a form of distributive shock where systemic
vasodilation leads to low SVR, often with a compensatory high cardiac output in the initial
stages (warm shock).
4. A patient with a ‘shift to the left’ on their CBC results likely has an increase in which type of
cells?
A. Immature band neutrophils
, B. Mature segmented neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes and Monocytes
D. Eosinophils and Basophils
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A ‘shift to the left’ refers to an increase in immature neutrophils
(bands), indicating that the bone marrow is rapidly releasing cells to fight an acute
bacterial infection.
5. Which cytokine is the primary endogenous pyrogen responsible for the induction of fever
in the inflammatory response?
A. Interferon-gamma
B. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
C. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
D. Leukotriene B4
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: IL-1, along with TNF-alpha and IL-6, acts on the hypothalamus
to reset the body’s thermostat, leading to fever.
6. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is paradoxically characterized by both
excessive clotting and bleeding. What causes the bleeding phase?
A. Inhibition of the intrinsic pathway
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF
CARDIOVASCULAR AND
HEMATOLOGIC SYSTEMS. QUESTIONS
AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS JUST
RELEASED
1. In the context of chronic heart failure, which mechanism is primarily responsible for
ventricular remodeling?
A. Short-term sympathetic nervous system activation
B. Decreased production of Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
C. Direct action of Angiotensin II and Aldosterone on myocytes
D. Acute increase in preload and myocardial stretch
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Ventricular remodeling is a long-term structural change driven
by the neurohormonal effects of the RAAS system, specifically Angiotensin II and
Aldosterone, which cause myocyte hypertrophy and fibrosis.
2. Which cellular finding is considered diagnostic for Hodgkin Lymphoma?
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
,B. Philadelphia chromosome
C. Auer rods
D. Bence-Jones proteins
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, multinucleated B cells
(often described as ‘owl-eyed’), are the hallmark of Hodgkin lymphoma.
3. Which type of shock is characterized by a high cardiac output and a significantly low
systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Obstructive shock
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Septic shock is a form of distributive shock where systemic
vasodilation leads to low SVR, often with a compensatory high cardiac output in the initial
stages (warm shock).
4. A patient with a ‘shift to the left’ on their CBC results likely has an increase in which type of
cells?
A. Immature band neutrophils
, B. Mature segmented neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes and Monocytes
D. Eosinophils and Basophils
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A ‘shift to the left’ refers to an increase in immature neutrophils
(bands), indicating that the bone marrow is rapidly releasing cells to fight an acute
bacterial infection.
5. Which cytokine is the primary endogenous pyrogen responsible for the induction of fever
in the inflammatory response?
A. Interferon-gamma
B. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
C. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
D. Leukotriene B4
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: IL-1, along with TNF-alpha and IL-6, acts on the hypothalamus
to reset the body’s thermostat, leading to fever.
6. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is paradoxically characterized by both
excessive clotting and bleeding. What causes the bleeding phase?
A. Inhibition of the intrinsic pathway
