CPAN (Certified Post Anesthesia Nurse)
Practice Exam| YEAR 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive 100-Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access
ALREADY GRADED A+.
Domain 1: Anesthesia (24%)
1. Which medication is a dissociative anesthetic with opioid-sparing action?
A) Propofol
B) Ketamine
C) Sevoflurane
D) Midazolam
Answer: B
Rationale: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic with opioid-sparing action, minimal effects on
respiratory rate, increases HR and BP, decreases nausea, and can cause marked salivation,
nystagmus, and emergence delirium.
2. Sevoflurane:
A) Potentiates neuromuscular blockade and delays emergence
B) Is used for conscious sedation
C) Has no effect on neuromuscular blockade
D) Accelerates emergence from anesthesia
Answer: A
Rationale: Sevoflurane potentiates neuromuscular blockade and delays emergence from
anesthesia.
3. Which benzodiazepine has a slow onset of 20-30 minutes?
A) Midazolam (Versed)
B) Diazepam (Valium)
C) Lorazepam (Ativan)
D) Flumazenil
,Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam has a slower onset of 20-30 minutes compared to midazolam, which has a
rapid onset of 1-5 minutes.
4. Which agent is used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Dantrolene
D) Atropine
Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific benzodiazepine antagonist. It rapidly reverses
benzodiazepine-induced sedation.
5. Which medication is commonly used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Dantrolene
D) Atropine
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid effects, including
respiratory depression.
6. A patient receiving succinylcholine should be monitored for which adverse effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Muscle fasciculations and myalgias
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that can cause muscle
fasciculations and myalgias. Throat and neck pain can last for 2 days.
7. Which condition is a contraindication to succinylcholine administration?
A) Hypertension
B) History of malignant hyperthermia
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Asthma
, Answer: B
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia and is
contraindicated in patients with a history of MH or those at risk.
8. Which volatile anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with triggering malignant
hyperthermia?
A) Propofol
B) Sevoflurane
C) Ketamine
D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: B
Rationale: Volatile anesthetic agents (sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane) and succinylcholine
are triggering agents for malignant hyperthermia. Propofol and nitrous oxide are safe.
9. A patient undergoing monitored anesthesia care (MAC) should receive:
A) General anesthesia
B) Sedation and analgesia with continuous monitoring
C) Only local anesthesia
D) Neuromuscular blockade
Answer: B
Rationale: MAC involves sedation and analgesia with continuous monitoring of vital signs and
oxygenation. The patient remains responsive but comfortable.
10. Which medication is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Rocuronium
C) Ketamine
D) Propofol
Answer: B
Rationale: Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Succinylcholine is the only
depolarizing blocker in clinical use.
11. A patient receiving TIVA (total intravenous anesthesia) would receive which agent for
maintenance?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Propofol
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Desflurane
Practice Exam| YEAR 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive 100-Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access
ALREADY GRADED A+.
Domain 1: Anesthesia (24%)
1. Which medication is a dissociative anesthetic with opioid-sparing action?
A) Propofol
B) Ketamine
C) Sevoflurane
D) Midazolam
Answer: B
Rationale: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic with opioid-sparing action, minimal effects on
respiratory rate, increases HR and BP, decreases nausea, and can cause marked salivation,
nystagmus, and emergence delirium.
2. Sevoflurane:
A) Potentiates neuromuscular blockade and delays emergence
B) Is used for conscious sedation
C) Has no effect on neuromuscular blockade
D) Accelerates emergence from anesthesia
Answer: A
Rationale: Sevoflurane potentiates neuromuscular blockade and delays emergence from
anesthesia.
3. Which benzodiazepine has a slow onset of 20-30 minutes?
A) Midazolam (Versed)
B) Diazepam (Valium)
C) Lorazepam (Ativan)
D) Flumazenil
,Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam has a slower onset of 20-30 minutes compared to midazolam, which has a
rapid onset of 1-5 minutes.
4. Which agent is used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Dantrolene
D) Atropine
Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific benzodiazepine antagonist. It rapidly reverses
benzodiazepine-induced sedation.
5. Which medication is commonly used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Dantrolene
D) Atropine
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid effects, including
respiratory depression.
6. A patient receiving succinylcholine should be monitored for which adverse effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Muscle fasciculations and myalgias
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that can cause muscle
fasciculations and myalgias. Throat and neck pain can last for 2 days.
7. Which condition is a contraindication to succinylcholine administration?
A) Hypertension
B) History of malignant hyperthermia
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Asthma
, Answer: B
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia and is
contraindicated in patients with a history of MH or those at risk.
8. Which volatile anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with triggering malignant
hyperthermia?
A) Propofol
B) Sevoflurane
C) Ketamine
D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: B
Rationale: Volatile anesthetic agents (sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane) and succinylcholine
are triggering agents for malignant hyperthermia. Propofol and nitrous oxide are safe.
9. A patient undergoing monitored anesthesia care (MAC) should receive:
A) General anesthesia
B) Sedation and analgesia with continuous monitoring
C) Only local anesthesia
D) Neuromuscular blockade
Answer: B
Rationale: MAC involves sedation and analgesia with continuous monitoring of vital signs and
oxygenation. The patient remains responsive but comfortable.
10. Which medication is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Rocuronium
C) Ketamine
D) Propofol
Answer: B
Rationale: Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Succinylcholine is the only
depolarizing blocker in clinical use.
11. A patient receiving TIVA (total intravenous anesthesia) would receive which agent for
maintenance?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Propofol
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Desflurane
