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Semmelweis Entrance Exam Medicine Biology 2026/2027 | Semmelweis University General Medicine Admission Test Study Guide, Medical Biology Entrance Exam Prep, Practice Questions with Answers & Explanations, Cell Biology, Genetics, Evolution, Human Physiolog

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Semmelweis Entrance Exam Medicine Biology 2026/2027 | Study and exam-preparation resource for applicants preparing for the Semmelweis University General Medicine entrance examination. The biology review covers evolution, chemical foundations of biology, biological molecules, cell structure and organelles, prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, tissues, mitosis and meiosis, metabolism and bioenergetics, human physiology, respiration, digestion, excretion, circulation, endocrine and nervous regulation, immunity, reproduction, embryonic development, viruses, Mendelian inheritance and human genetics. It also supports review of essential English biomedical terminology. Semmelweis University describes its written entrance examination as including a Medical Biology test with 20 questions, alongside Medical Chemistry and English tests; an interview includes oral examination in the relevant subjects. The university publishes these topics as preparation guidance, not as the actual exam questions. This resource is intended for independent revision, practice questions, explanations and entrance-exam preparation.

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Semmelweis Entrance Exam Medicine Biology 2026/2027 |
Semmelweis University General Medicine Admission Test Study
Guide, Medical Biology Entrance Exam Prep, Practice Questions
with Answers & Explanations, Cell Biology, Genetics, Evolution,
Human Physiology, Cell Division, Molecular Biology, Metabolism,
Reproduction & Biomedical Terminology
Question 1: Which of the following cellular organelles is primarily responsible
for the synthesis of proteins destined for secretion from the cell?
A. Lysosome
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Peroxisome
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Rationale: The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes,
which are the sites of protein synthesis. Proteins synthesized on the RER are
typically destined for secretion, insertion into membranes, or delivery to other
organelles. The smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification,
lysosomes are for intracellular digestion, and peroxisomes are involved in various
metabolic reactions including the breakdown of fatty acids.
Question 2: During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and
move to opposite poles of the cell?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Anaphase
Rationale: Anaphase is the stage of mitosis where the cohesin proteins holding
sister chromatids together are cleaved, allowing the chromatids (now individual
chromosomes) to be pulled by spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.
Prophase involves chromosome condensation, metaphase involves chromosome
alignment at the metaphase plate, and telophase involves the reformation of
nuclei.

,Question 3: In the context of the central dogma of molecular biology, what is
the process by which a DNA sequence is copied into a complementary RNA
sequence called?
A. Translation
B. Replication
C. Transcription
D. Transformation
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Transcription
Rationale: Transcription is the process where the enzyme RNA polymerase
synthesizes an RNA molecule from a DNA template. Translation is the synthesis of
a protein from an mRNA template. Replication is the process of copying DNA to
produce two identical DNA molecules. Transformation is the genetic alteration of
a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous genetic
material.
Question 4: Which of the following is the primary function of the mitochondria?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Lipid synthesis
C. ATP production
D. Waste degradation
CORRECT ANSWER: C. ATP production
Rationale: Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses" of the cell
because their primary role is to generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine
triphosphate (ATP), which is used as a source of chemical energy. Protein
synthesis occurs on ribosomes, lipid synthesis primarily in the smooth ER, and
waste degradation in lysosomes.
Question 5: A human somatic cell typically contains how many chromosomes?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 92
D. 22 pairs

,CORRECT ANSWER: B. 46
Rationale: Human somatic (body) cells are diploid, meaning they contain two sets
of chromosomes, one from each parent. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes,
totaling 46 individual chromosomes. Gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid
and contain 23 chromosomes.
Question 6: Which of the following base pairs is correctly matched according to
Watson-Crick base pairing rules in DNA?
A. Adenine-Guanine
B. Cytosine-Thymine
C. Adenine-Thymine
D. Guanine-Uracil
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Adenine-Thymine
Rationale: In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) via two hydrogen bonds,
and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C) via three hydrogen bonds. Uracil (U) is
found in RNA and pairs with adenine. The other options represent incorrect
pairings.
Question 7: What is the name of the process by which a cell engulfs large
particles or even other cells?
A. Exocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Osmosis
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Phagocytosis
Rationale: Phagocytosis, often called "cell eating," is the process by which a cell
uses its plasma membrane to engulf a large particle, such as a bacterium or a
dead cell, forming an internal vesicle called a phagosome. Pinocytosis is "cell
drinking" and involves the intake of fluids and small solutes. Exocytosis is the
process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane to release contents outside
the cell. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

, Question 8: Which of the following enzymes is responsible for unwinding the
DNA double helix during DNA replication?
A. DNA polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Ligase
D. Primase
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Helicase
Rationale: Helicase is the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between the
complementary base pairs, unwinding the DNA double helix to create a
replication fork. DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands, ligase joins
Okazaki fragments, and primase synthesizes short RNA primers.
Question 9: In a Punnett square, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of
offspring from a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (Aa x
Aa)?
A. 1:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:2:1
D. 9:3:3:1
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 3:1
Rationale: A monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa) results in a
genotypic ratio of 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Since the dominant allele (A) masks the
recessive allele (a), both AA and Aa individuals show the dominant phenotype.
Therefore, the phenotypic ratio is 3 dominant : 1 recessive, or 3:1. The 1:2:1 ratio
is the genotypic ratio. The 9:3:3:1 ratio is for a dihybrid cross.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide?
A. A phosphate group
B. A pentose sugar
C. A nitrogenous base
D. An amino acid
CORRECT ANSWER: D. An amino acid

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Subido en
18 de septiembre de 2026
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