ANSC 107 Final Exam TAMU
Questions and Answers| Pass Guaranteed| Updated
Q1. What are the four major beef cattle breed categories based on origin?
Answer: British breeds (Angus, Hereford, Shorthorn), Continental/Exotic breeds
(Charolais, Simmental, Limousin), Zebu/Bos indicus breeds (Brahman), and
composite/crossbred breeds.
Rationale: Breeds are classified by geographic origin and genetic background, which
influences traits such as heat tolerance, muscling, and marbling ability.
Q2. Name two Bos indicus characteristics that make Brahman cattle suited to hot
climates.
Answer: Loose, dark skin with abundant sweat glands, and a large sloping shoulder
hump used as a fat reserve.
Rationale: These anatomical adaptations increase heat dissipation through the skin
and reduce heat load, allowing Brahman cattle to thrive in tropical and subtropical
environments.
Q3. What primarily distinguishes dairy cattle breeds from one another?
Answer: Milk yield, milk composition (percent butterfat and protein), and body
size/type.
Rationale: Breeds like Holstein are selected for high milk volume, while Jersey and
Guernsey are selected for high butterfat content, reflecting different production goals
within the dairy industry.
Q4. Which dairy breed produces the highest milk volume but with a lower butterfat
percentage?
Answer: Holstein.
Rationale: Decades of selection for volume have made Holsteins the highest-
producing dairy breed by weight, though their milk is more dilute in butterfat and
protein than breeds like Jersey.
Q5. What is meant by "grading up" in breed improvement programs?
Answer: Repeatedly breeding purebred sires to grade (non-registered) females over
several generations to increase the percentage of purebred genetics in the offspring.
, Rationale: After enough successive generations, offspring become genetically similar
enough to the purebred sire line that they may be recognized as purebred for registry
purposes.
Q6. Differentiate a purebred animal from a crossbred animal.
Answer: A purebred has two parents of the same recognized breed with
documented pedigree; a crossbred results from mating two different breeds.
Rationale: Purebreds are maintained to preserve breed standards and genetic
predictability, while crossbreds are produced to capture hybrid vigor and combine
desirable traits from multiple breeds.
Q7. What is heterosis, or hybrid vigor?
Answer: The phenomenon in which crossbred offspring outperform the average of
their purebred parents for traits such as growth rate, fertility, and survivability.
Rationale: Heterosis results from increased heterozygosity, which can mask
deleterious recessive alleles and improve overall fitness traits in the crossbred
offspring.
Q8. What is the basic distinction between light horse and draft horse classifications?
Answer: Light horses (such as Thoroughbreds and Quarter Horses) are smaller and
used for riding, racing, or performance, while draft horses (such as Clydesdales and
Belgians) are large and used for pulling heavy loads.
Rationale: Draft breeds have been selected for muscle mass and pulling power,
whereas light breeds have been selected for speed, agility, and rider comfort.
Q9. What is the primary economic product of the swine industry, and how is carcass
value largely determined?
Answer: Pork (lean muscle); carcass value is largely determined by percent lean
muscling and backfat thickness.
Rationale: Packers pay premiums for carcasses with a high proportion of lean meat
and minimal excess fat because this maximizes the amount of salable product per
carcass.
Q10. Name two major U.S. swine breeds and one key trait each is known for.
Answer: Yorkshire, known for large litter size and strong maternal traits; Duroc,
known for fast growth rate and good marbling.
Rationale: Swine breeding programs often use maternal breeds like Yorkshire in the
sow line and terminal breeds like Duroc in the sire line to optimize both reproduction
and carcass quality.
, Q11. What distinguishes wool breeds of sheep from meat breeds of sheep?
Answer: Wool breeds (such as Merino and Rambouillet) are selected for fine, dense
fleece, while meat breeds (such as Suffolk and Hampshire) are selected for rapid
growth and heavy muscling.
Rationale: Selection pressure differs based on the primary marketable product of the
breed, whether fiber quality or carcass characteristics.
Q12. What is the primary difference between hair sheep and wool sheep?
Answer: Hair sheep, such as Katahdin and Dorper, naturally shed their coat and do
not require shearing, while wool sheep grow continuous fleece that must be sheared
annually.
Rationale: Hair sheep reduce labor and shearing costs, making them attractive in
meat-focused production systems where fleece is not a marketable product.
Q13. What are the two main goat production types?
Answer: Dairy goats (such as Nubian, Saanen, and Alpine) raised for milk, and meat
goats (such as Boer and Kiko) raised for chevon (goat meat).
Rationale: Genetic selection differs between the two types, with dairy goats selected
for udder conformation and milk yield, and meat goats selected for muscling and
growth rate.
Q14. What is the significance of the Boer breed in the meat goat industry?
Answer: Boer goats were developed for rapid growth, heavy muscling, and high
fertility, and are widely used as terminal sires to improve carcass traits in crossbred
kids.
Rationale: Their distinctive white body and red head phenotype, combined with
superior carcass characteristics, have made Boer the industry standard meat goat
breed.
Q15. Differentiate broiler production from layer production in poultry.
Answer: Broilers are chickens raised specifically for meat and marketed at about six
to eight weeks of age, while layers are hens managed for maximum egg production
over an extended laying cycle.
Rationale: Broilers are selected for rapid growth and efficient feed conversion, while
layers are selected for egg number, shell quality, and persistency of lay rather than
body growth.
Q16. What does USDA quality grading of beef primarily measure?
Questions and Answers| Pass Guaranteed| Updated
Q1. What are the four major beef cattle breed categories based on origin?
Answer: British breeds (Angus, Hereford, Shorthorn), Continental/Exotic breeds
(Charolais, Simmental, Limousin), Zebu/Bos indicus breeds (Brahman), and
composite/crossbred breeds.
Rationale: Breeds are classified by geographic origin and genetic background, which
influences traits such as heat tolerance, muscling, and marbling ability.
Q2. Name two Bos indicus characteristics that make Brahman cattle suited to hot
climates.
Answer: Loose, dark skin with abundant sweat glands, and a large sloping shoulder
hump used as a fat reserve.
Rationale: These anatomical adaptations increase heat dissipation through the skin
and reduce heat load, allowing Brahman cattle to thrive in tropical and subtropical
environments.
Q3. What primarily distinguishes dairy cattle breeds from one another?
Answer: Milk yield, milk composition (percent butterfat and protein), and body
size/type.
Rationale: Breeds like Holstein are selected for high milk volume, while Jersey and
Guernsey are selected for high butterfat content, reflecting different production goals
within the dairy industry.
Q4. Which dairy breed produces the highest milk volume but with a lower butterfat
percentage?
Answer: Holstein.
Rationale: Decades of selection for volume have made Holsteins the highest-
producing dairy breed by weight, though their milk is more dilute in butterfat and
protein than breeds like Jersey.
Q5. What is meant by "grading up" in breed improvement programs?
Answer: Repeatedly breeding purebred sires to grade (non-registered) females over
several generations to increase the percentage of purebred genetics in the offspring.
, Rationale: After enough successive generations, offspring become genetically similar
enough to the purebred sire line that they may be recognized as purebred for registry
purposes.
Q6. Differentiate a purebred animal from a crossbred animal.
Answer: A purebred has two parents of the same recognized breed with
documented pedigree; a crossbred results from mating two different breeds.
Rationale: Purebreds are maintained to preserve breed standards and genetic
predictability, while crossbreds are produced to capture hybrid vigor and combine
desirable traits from multiple breeds.
Q7. What is heterosis, or hybrid vigor?
Answer: The phenomenon in which crossbred offspring outperform the average of
their purebred parents for traits such as growth rate, fertility, and survivability.
Rationale: Heterosis results from increased heterozygosity, which can mask
deleterious recessive alleles and improve overall fitness traits in the crossbred
offspring.
Q8. What is the basic distinction between light horse and draft horse classifications?
Answer: Light horses (such as Thoroughbreds and Quarter Horses) are smaller and
used for riding, racing, or performance, while draft horses (such as Clydesdales and
Belgians) are large and used for pulling heavy loads.
Rationale: Draft breeds have been selected for muscle mass and pulling power,
whereas light breeds have been selected for speed, agility, and rider comfort.
Q9. What is the primary economic product of the swine industry, and how is carcass
value largely determined?
Answer: Pork (lean muscle); carcass value is largely determined by percent lean
muscling and backfat thickness.
Rationale: Packers pay premiums for carcasses with a high proportion of lean meat
and minimal excess fat because this maximizes the amount of salable product per
carcass.
Q10. Name two major U.S. swine breeds and one key trait each is known for.
Answer: Yorkshire, known for large litter size and strong maternal traits; Duroc,
known for fast growth rate and good marbling.
Rationale: Swine breeding programs often use maternal breeds like Yorkshire in the
sow line and terminal breeds like Duroc in the sire line to optimize both reproduction
and carcass quality.
, Q11. What distinguishes wool breeds of sheep from meat breeds of sheep?
Answer: Wool breeds (such as Merino and Rambouillet) are selected for fine, dense
fleece, while meat breeds (such as Suffolk and Hampshire) are selected for rapid
growth and heavy muscling.
Rationale: Selection pressure differs based on the primary marketable product of the
breed, whether fiber quality or carcass characteristics.
Q12. What is the primary difference between hair sheep and wool sheep?
Answer: Hair sheep, such as Katahdin and Dorper, naturally shed their coat and do
not require shearing, while wool sheep grow continuous fleece that must be sheared
annually.
Rationale: Hair sheep reduce labor and shearing costs, making them attractive in
meat-focused production systems where fleece is not a marketable product.
Q13. What are the two main goat production types?
Answer: Dairy goats (such as Nubian, Saanen, and Alpine) raised for milk, and meat
goats (such as Boer and Kiko) raised for chevon (goat meat).
Rationale: Genetic selection differs between the two types, with dairy goats selected
for udder conformation and milk yield, and meat goats selected for muscling and
growth rate.
Q14. What is the significance of the Boer breed in the meat goat industry?
Answer: Boer goats were developed for rapid growth, heavy muscling, and high
fertility, and are widely used as terminal sires to improve carcass traits in crossbred
kids.
Rationale: Their distinctive white body and red head phenotype, combined with
superior carcass characteristics, have made Boer the industry standard meat goat
breed.
Q15. Differentiate broiler production from layer production in poultry.
Answer: Broilers are chickens raised specifically for meat and marketed at about six
to eight weeks of age, while layers are hens managed for maximum egg production
over an extended laying cycle.
Rationale: Broilers are selected for rapid growth and efficient feed conversion, while
layers are selected for egg number, shell quality, and persistency of lay rather than
body growth.
Q16. What does USDA quality grading of beef primarily measure?
