RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY - SCHOOL OF NURSING
NUR 2513 / NUR2513 FINAL EXAM
(LATEST )
MATERNAL CHILD NURSING - RASMUSSEN
Total Questions Time Allowed Content Areas Question Style Cognitive Levels
150 180 Minutes 9 Sections 75% Scenario-Based / 20% Recall / 50%
25% Direct Knowledge Application / 30%
Analysis
Directions: This examination contains 150 multiple-choice questions organized into nine content areas aligned with the
Rasmussen University NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing syllabus, the NCLEX-RN test plan, QSEN competencies, and
AWHONN maternal-child nursing standards. Select the single best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each item. The correct answer and
an evidence-based rationale follow every question to support remediation and study review.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q1: A nurse is reviewing assessment findings documented for a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a positive (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea and breast tenderness reported by the client
B. Chadwick's sign of the cervix noted on examination
C. Visualization of the fetus by obstetric ultrasound [CORRECT]
D. A positive result on a urine human chorionic gonadotropin test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those attributable only to the fetus and include ultrasound visualization of
the fetus, examiner-verified fetal movement, and auscultation of fetal heart tones. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign,
while Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix) and a positive pregnancy test are probable signs, all of
which can be caused by other conditions. The NUR 2513 curriculum emphasizes that only positive signs confirm the
diagnosis of pregnancy.
1
,NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q2: A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, the nurse should
calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD) as which of the following?
A. December 3
B. December 24
C. January 10
D. December 17 [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele's rule subtracts 3 months from the first day of the LMP, adds 7 days, and adjusts the year (March
10 - 3 months = December 10; + 7 days = December 17). December 3 and December 24 result from adding or
subtracting the days incorrectly, and January 10 reflects adding a full month. The NUR 2513 curriculum identifies
Naegele's rule as the standard paper-based method for estimating the delivery date, assuming a 28-day cycle.
Q3: A client who is currently pregnant has delivered three term infants, has no history of preterm birth, has
experienced two spontaneous abortions, and has three living children. Using GTPAL, the nurse should
document this client's obstetric history as which of the following?
A. G4 T3 P0 A2 L3
B. G5 T3 P0 A2 L3 [CORRECT]
C. G5 T3 P2 A2 L3
D. G5 T3 P0 A2 L5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GTPAL documents Gravidity (all pregnancies including the current one = 5), Term births (3), Preterm
births (0), Abortions/miscarriages (2), and Living children (3). Gravidity of 4 omits the current pregnancy, counting
the two abortions as preterm births (G5 T3 P2 A2 L3) misclassifies the losses, and 5 living children confuses gravidity
with parity. Accurate GTPAL documentation is a core antepartum assessment skill in the NUR 2513 curriculum.
Q4: A nurse is measuring fundal height for a client at 22 weeks of gestation with a singleton pregnancy.
Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
A. Fundal height of approximately 12 cm, just above the symphysis pubis
B. Fundal height of approximately 30 cm, midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid
C. Fundal height of approximately 22 cm, slightly above the umbilicus [CORRECT]
D. Inability to palpate the fundus above the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After 20 weeks of gestation, fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal the number of
weeks of gestation, so a client at 22 weeks should measure about 22 cm, just above the umbilicus (the fundus reaches
the umbilicus at 20 weeks). A 12 cm measurement suggests an earlier gestation or growth restriction, 30 cm suggests a
later gestation, and the fundus is palpable above the symphysis by 12 weeks. Fundal height measurement is a routine
antepartum screening tool for fetal growth per NUR 2513 standards.
2
,NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q5: During an abdominal examination, a nurse performs the first Leopold maneuver (fundal grip) and
palpates a soft, irregular, movable mass in the fundus. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. The fetal head is presenting in the fundus
B. The fetal buttocks are in the fundus, suggesting a breech presentation [CORRECT]
C. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation
D. The fetus is in a transverse lie
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the first Leopold maneuver, a soft, irregular shape that moves with the fetal body represents the
buttocks in the fundus, indicating a breech presentation; a hard, round, ballotable mass represents the head in a
cephalic presentation. The first maneuver examines the fundus, not the presenting part at the pelvic inlet, and a
transverse lie requires identifying poles on the lateral abdomen. Leopold's maneuvers are standard NUR 2513 skills
for determining fetal position and presentation.
Q6: A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports frequent burning substernal discomfort after meals. Which
instruction should the nurse provide to manage this common discomfort of pregnancy?
A. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid fatty or spicy foods [CORRECT]
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after each meal to aid digestion
C. Take sodium bicarbonate antacid tablets after every meal
D. Restrict fluids with meals to reduce gastric distension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy results from progesterone-mediated relaxation of the esophageal sphincter and
displacement of the stomach by the growing uterus; small frequent meals, avoiding trigger foods, remaining upright
after eating, and approved antacids are evidence-based interventions. Lying down after meals worsens reflux, and
sodium bicarbonate is avoided because of its high sodium load and potential systemic alkalosis. Fluid restriction is
unnecessary and may compromise hydration per NUR 2513 nutrition standards.
Q7: A client at 30 weeks of gestation telephones the prenatal clinic reporting facial and upper-extremity
edema, a severe headache, and blurred vision that began this morning. Which instruction should the nurse
give the client first?
A. Elevate the feet and increase rest periods throughout the day
B. Come to the clinic or birthing unit immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Decrease salt intake and keep an appointment later in the week
D. Drink extra fluids and monitor the symptoms for 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Facial and hand edema with severe headache and visual disturbances are classic warning signs of
worsening preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical evaluation for blood pressure measurement, proteinuria
testing, and fetal assessment. Elevated rest and fluid intake delay definitive treatment, and waiting for a later
appointment risks progression to severe features or eclampsia. The NUR 2513 curriculum lists these symptoms among
the danger signs of pregnancy that mandate urgent, same-day assessment.
3
, NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q8: A nurse is counseling a pregnant client with a prepregnancy body mass index of 22 (normal weight)
about nutrition. Which total weight gain during the pregnancy should the nurse recommend?
A. 7 to 11.5 kg (15 to 25 lb)
B. 12.5 to 18 kg (28 to 40 lb)
C. At least 18 kg (40 lb) or more
D. 11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Per Institute of Medicine and NUR 2513 guidelines, a client with a normal prepregnancy BMI should gain
11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb) total, with underweight clients gaining 12.5 to 18 kg and overweight or obese clients
gaining less. Gains below or above these ranges are associated with low birth weight or macrosomia and postpartum
retention. Individualized weight-gain counseling based on prepregnancy BMI is a required component of prenatal
health promotion.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the recommended schedule for prenatal visits during an
uncomplicated pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the standard
visit frequency?
A. I will be seen every 2 weeks throughout the entire pregnancy
B. I will be seen monthly until 36 weeks and then every 2 weeks
C. I will be seen every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly
[CORRECT]
D. I will only need visits every 6 weeks if my blood pressure stays normal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The standard prenatal visit schedule is every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks,
and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery, allowing surveillance for preeclampsia, fetal growth, and preterm labor in
the periods of highest risk. Monthly visits throughout the pregnancy miss third-trimester surveillance, and less
frequent schedules are reserved for low-intervention models with provider approval. This schedule is a testing staple
of the NUR 2513 antepartum curriculum.
4
NUR 2513 / NUR2513 FINAL EXAM
(LATEST )
MATERNAL CHILD NURSING - RASMUSSEN
Total Questions Time Allowed Content Areas Question Style Cognitive Levels
150 180 Minutes 9 Sections 75% Scenario-Based / 20% Recall / 50%
25% Direct Knowledge Application / 30%
Analysis
Directions: This examination contains 150 multiple-choice questions organized into nine content areas aligned with the
Rasmussen University NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing syllabus, the NCLEX-RN test plan, QSEN competencies, and
AWHONN maternal-child nursing standards. Select the single best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each item. The correct answer and
an evidence-based rationale follow every question to support remediation and study review.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
Q1: A nurse is reviewing assessment findings documented for a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a positive (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea and breast tenderness reported by the client
B. Chadwick's sign of the cervix noted on examination
C. Visualization of the fetus by obstetric ultrasound [CORRECT]
D. A positive result on a urine human chorionic gonadotropin test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those attributable only to the fetus and include ultrasound visualization of
the fetus, examiner-verified fetal movement, and auscultation of fetal heart tones. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign,
while Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix) and a positive pregnancy test are probable signs, all of
which can be caused by other conditions. The NUR 2513 curriculum emphasizes that only positive signs confirm the
diagnosis of pregnancy.
1
,NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q2: A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, the nurse should
calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD) as which of the following?
A. December 3
B. December 24
C. January 10
D. December 17 [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele's rule subtracts 3 months from the first day of the LMP, adds 7 days, and adjusts the year (March
10 - 3 months = December 10; + 7 days = December 17). December 3 and December 24 result from adding or
subtracting the days incorrectly, and January 10 reflects adding a full month. The NUR 2513 curriculum identifies
Naegele's rule as the standard paper-based method for estimating the delivery date, assuming a 28-day cycle.
Q3: A client who is currently pregnant has delivered three term infants, has no history of preterm birth, has
experienced two spontaneous abortions, and has three living children. Using GTPAL, the nurse should
document this client's obstetric history as which of the following?
A. G4 T3 P0 A2 L3
B. G5 T3 P0 A2 L3 [CORRECT]
C. G5 T3 P2 A2 L3
D. G5 T3 P0 A2 L5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GTPAL documents Gravidity (all pregnancies including the current one = 5), Term births (3), Preterm
births (0), Abortions/miscarriages (2), and Living children (3). Gravidity of 4 omits the current pregnancy, counting
the two abortions as preterm births (G5 T3 P2 A2 L3) misclassifies the losses, and 5 living children confuses gravidity
with parity. Accurate GTPAL documentation is a core antepartum assessment skill in the NUR 2513 curriculum.
Q4: A nurse is measuring fundal height for a client at 22 weeks of gestation with a singleton pregnancy.
Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
A. Fundal height of approximately 12 cm, just above the symphysis pubis
B. Fundal height of approximately 30 cm, midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid
C. Fundal height of approximately 22 cm, slightly above the umbilicus [CORRECT]
D. Inability to palpate the fundus above the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After 20 weeks of gestation, fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal the number of
weeks of gestation, so a client at 22 weeks should measure about 22 cm, just above the umbilicus (the fundus reaches
the umbilicus at 20 weeks). A 12 cm measurement suggests an earlier gestation or growth restriction, 30 cm suggests a
later gestation, and the fundus is palpable above the symphysis by 12 weeks. Fundal height measurement is a routine
antepartum screening tool for fetal growth per NUR 2513 standards.
2
,NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q5: During an abdominal examination, a nurse performs the first Leopold maneuver (fundal grip) and
palpates a soft, irregular, movable mass in the fundus. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. The fetal head is presenting in the fundus
B. The fetal buttocks are in the fundus, suggesting a breech presentation [CORRECT]
C. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation
D. The fetus is in a transverse lie
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the first Leopold maneuver, a soft, irregular shape that moves with the fetal body represents the
buttocks in the fundus, indicating a breech presentation; a hard, round, ballotable mass represents the head in a
cephalic presentation. The first maneuver examines the fundus, not the presenting part at the pelvic inlet, and a
transverse lie requires identifying poles on the lateral abdomen. Leopold's maneuvers are standard NUR 2513 skills
for determining fetal position and presentation.
Q6: A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports frequent burning substernal discomfort after meals. Which
instruction should the nurse provide to manage this common discomfort of pregnancy?
A. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid fatty or spicy foods [CORRECT]
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after each meal to aid digestion
C. Take sodium bicarbonate antacid tablets after every meal
D. Restrict fluids with meals to reduce gastric distension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy results from progesterone-mediated relaxation of the esophageal sphincter and
displacement of the stomach by the growing uterus; small frequent meals, avoiding trigger foods, remaining upright
after eating, and approved antacids are evidence-based interventions. Lying down after meals worsens reflux, and
sodium bicarbonate is avoided because of its high sodium load and potential systemic alkalosis. Fluid restriction is
unnecessary and may compromise hydration per NUR 2513 nutrition standards.
Q7: A client at 30 weeks of gestation telephones the prenatal clinic reporting facial and upper-extremity
edema, a severe headache, and blurred vision that began this morning. Which instruction should the nurse
give the client first?
A. Elevate the feet and increase rest periods throughout the day
B. Come to the clinic or birthing unit immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Decrease salt intake and keep an appointment later in the week
D. Drink extra fluids and monitor the symptoms for 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Facial and hand edema with severe headache and visual disturbances are classic warning signs of
worsening preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical evaluation for blood pressure measurement, proteinuria
testing, and fetal assessment. Elevated rest and fluid intake delay definitive treatment, and waiting for a later
appointment risks progression to severe features or eclampsia. The NUR 2513 curriculum lists these symptoms among
the danger signs of pregnancy that mandate urgent, same-day assessment.
3
, NUR 2513 / NUR2513 Final Exam (Latest ): Maternal Child Nursing - Rasmussen
Q8: A nurse is counseling a pregnant client with a prepregnancy body mass index of 22 (normal weight)
about nutrition. Which total weight gain during the pregnancy should the nurse recommend?
A. 7 to 11.5 kg (15 to 25 lb)
B. 12.5 to 18 kg (28 to 40 lb)
C. At least 18 kg (40 lb) or more
D. 11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Per Institute of Medicine and NUR 2513 guidelines, a client with a normal prepregnancy BMI should gain
11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb) total, with underweight clients gaining 12.5 to 18 kg and overweight or obese clients
gaining less. Gains below or above these ranges are associated with low birth weight or macrosomia and postpartum
retention. Individualized weight-gain counseling based on prepregnancy BMI is a required component of prenatal
health promotion.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the recommended schedule for prenatal visits during an
uncomplicated pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the standard
visit frequency?
A. I will be seen every 2 weeks throughout the entire pregnancy
B. I will be seen monthly until 36 weeks and then every 2 weeks
C. I will be seen every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly
[CORRECT]
D. I will only need visits every 6 weeks if my blood pressure stays normal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The standard prenatal visit schedule is every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks,
and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery, allowing surveillance for preeclampsia, fetal growth, and preterm labor in
the periods of highest risk. Monthly visits throughout the pregnancy miss third-trimester surveillance, and less
frequent schedules are reserved for low-intervention models with provider approval. This schedule is a testing staple
of the NUR 2513 antepartum curriculum.
4
