NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT A+ VERIFIED
NSG 3500 Exam 4 Maternal Health — Complete
Official Exam
50 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 High-Risk Antepartum Care
02 Intrapartum Complications & Emergencies
03 Postpartum Complications & Hemorrhage
04 Newborn Complications & Neonatal Care
05 Perinatal Loss, Ethics & Family-Centered Care
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal health nursing — from high-risk antepartum care and intrapartum complications to postpartum hemorrhage,
newborn complications, perinatal loss, ethics, and family-centered care. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills
for NSG 3500 Exam 4, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Intermediate (Nursing Course) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: High-Risk Antepartum Care
Q1. A 29-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation reports a sudden severe headache, blurred vision, and
right-upper-quadrant pain. Blood pressure is 168/108 mm Hg and urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. The nurse prioritizes
assessment for which complication?
A. Gestational diabetes with mild hyperglycemia
B. Preeclampsia with severe features
C. Placenta previa without bleeding
D. Normal third-trimester discomfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe-range blood pressure, significant proteinuria, headache, visual changes, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain indicate
preeclampsia with severe features. Immediate evaluation for end-organ involvement and possible progression to eclampsia is required.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks with gestational diabetes has fasting capillary glucose values consistently above 110 mg/dL despite
diet therapy. The nurse anticipates which next step in management?
A. Discontinue all monitoring and reassure the client
B. Referral for possible insulin or other pharmacologic therapy and intensified surveillance
C. Immediate induction of labor at 28 weeks
D. Restriction of all carbohydrates without further glucose checks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent fasting hyperglycemia above target after lifestyle measures usually requires pharmacologic therapy and closer fetal surveillance
to reduce the risk of macrosomia and other complications.
Q3. A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks has a negative antibody screen. The nurse prepares to administer which medication?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine only
B. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 300 mcg intramuscularly
C. Tetanus toxoid alone
D. No medication until after delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Routine antenatal RhoGAM at approximately 28 weeks prevents maternal sensitization in Rh-negative clients with a negative antibody
screen. Postpartum dosing follows if the newborn is Rh-positive.
Q4. A client at 34 weeks reports painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. The nurse places the client on bed rest and anticipates
which diagnostic study before any digital examination?
A. Ultrasound to determine placental location
B. Immediate sterile vaginal examination
C. Amniocentesis for lung maturity only
D. Nonstress test without imaging
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Painless third-trimester bleeding raises concern for placenta previa. Ultrasound confirms placental location before digital examination that
could provoke hemorrhage.
Q5. A client at 26 weeks has a fundal height of 22 cm. The nurse’s priority action is to:
A. Notify the provider of possible fetal growth restriction and prepare for further evaluation
B. Document the measurement as a normal variation
C. Schedule induction of labor immediately
D. Reassure the client that the fetus is simply small for dates without further testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After 20 weeks, fundal height in centimeters roughly equals gestational age in weeks. A discrepancy of more than 2–3 cm warrants
ultrasound evaluation of growth and amniotic fluid.
Q6. A client with chronic hypertension is 14 weeks pregnant. The nurse reinforces which teaching priority?
A. Stop all antihypertensive medication at once
B. Increase sodium intake freely
C. Avoid all prenatal visits until the third trimester
D. Continue pregnancy-safe antihypertensives as prescribed, monitor blood pressure at home, and report severe headache or
visual changes promptly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Preexisting hypertension requires ongoing monitoring and medication review for fetal safety. Clients must recognize warning signs of
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
superimposed preeclampsia.
NSG 3500 Exam 4 Maternal Health — Complete
Official Exam
50 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 High-Risk Antepartum Care
02 Intrapartum Complications & Emergencies
03 Postpartum Complications & Hemorrhage
04 Newborn Complications & Neonatal Care
05 Perinatal Loss, Ethics & Family-Centered Care
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal health nursing — from high-risk antepartum care and intrapartum complications to postpartum hemorrhage,
newborn complications, perinatal loss, ethics, and family-centered care. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills
for NSG 3500 Exam 4, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Intermediate (Nursing Course) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: High-Risk Antepartum Care
Q1. A 29-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation reports a sudden severe headache, blurred vision, and
right-upper-quadrant pain. Blood pressure is 168/108 mm Hg and urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. The nurse prioritizes
assessment for which complication?
A. Gestational diabetes with mild hyperglycemia
B. Preeclampsia with severe features
C. Placenta previa without bleeding
D. Normal third-trimester discomfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe-range blood pressure, significant proteinuria, headache, visual changes, and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain indicate
preeclampsia with severe features. Immediate evaluation for end-organ involvement and possible progression to eclampsia is required.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks with gestational diabetes has fasting capillary glucose values consistently above 110 mg/dL despite
diet therapy. The nurse anticipates which next step in management?
A. Discontinue all monitoring and reassure the client
B. Referral for possible insulin or other pharmacologic therapy and intensified surveillance
C. Immediate induction of labor at 28 weeks
D. Restriction of all carbohydrates without further glucose checks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent fasting hyperglycemia above target after lifestyle measures usually requires pharmacologic therapy and closer fetal surveillance
to reduce the risk of macrosomia and other complications.
Q3. A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks has a negative antibody screen. The nurse prepares to administer which medication?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine only
B. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 300 mcg intramuscularly
C. Tetanus toxoid alone
D. No medication until after delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Routine antenatal RhoGAM at approximately 28 weeks prevents maternal sensitization in Rh-negative clients with a negative antibody
screen. Postpartum dosing follows if the newborn is Rh-positive.
Q4. A client at 34 weeks reports painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. The nurse places the client on bed rest and anticipates
which diagnostic study before any digital examination?
A. Ultrasound to determine placental location
B. Immediate sterile vaginal examination
C. Amniocentesis for lung maturity only
D. Nonstress test without imaging
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Painless third-trimester bleeding raises concern for placenta previa. Ultrasound confirms placental location before digital examination that
could provoke hemorrhage.
Q5. A client at 26 weeks has a fundal height of 22 cm. The nurse’s priority action is to:
A. Notify the provider of possible fetal growth restriction and prepare for further evaluation
B. Document the measurement as a normal variation
C. Schedule induction of labor immediately
D. Reassure the client that the fetus is simply small for dates without further testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After 20 weeks, fundal height in centimeters roughly equals gestational age in weeks. A discrepancy of more than 2–3 cm warrants
ultrasound evaluation of growth and amniotic fluid.
Q6. A client with chronic hypertension is 14 weeks pregnant. The nurse reinforces which teaching priority?
A. Stop all antihypertensive medication at once
B. Increase sodium intake freely
C. Avoid all prenatal visits until the third trimester
D. Continue pregnancy-safe antihypertensives as prescribed, monitor blood pressure at home, and report severe headache or
visual changes promptly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Preexisting hypertension requires ongoing monitoring and medication review for fetal safety. Clients must recognize warning signs of
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
superimposed preeclampsia.
