PM Practitioner Certification Exam (PMT
4890V) Latest Update 2026|2027| A
Comprehensive Review Of 200 Practice
Questions with Answers and Rationales| Pass
Guaranteed
Introduction
The PM Practitioner Certification Exam (PMT 4890V) is the culminating assessment required
to achieve the DoD Program Management Practitioner Certification. This closed-book, 100-
question multiple-choice exam is delivered by Pearson VUE and requires a minimum passing
score of 70%.
The exam content is weighted across six prerequisite courses:
• ACQ 2020 (Intermediate Systems Acquisition, Part A) — 40 questions
• ACQ 1010 (Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management) — 25 questions
• ACQ 2030 (Intermediate Systems Acquisition, Part B) — 25 questions
• PMT 0141 (IPT Management) — 5 questions
• PMT 2570 (Program Management Tools) — 3 questions
• ACQ 0030 (Acquisition Ethics) — 2 questions
Section 1: Acquisition Ethics (ACQ 0030)
1. Which of the following is a core ethical principle for government and contractor
acquisition professionals?
A. Maximizing contractor profit above all other considerations
B. Placing personal financial interests ahead of public trust
C. Acting with integrity, impartiality, and avoiding conflicts of interest
D. Accepting gifts from contractors as a standard business courtesy
Correct: C — Acting with integrity, impartiality, and avoiding conflicts of interest.
,Rationale: Core ethical principles require government acquisition professionals to maintain
public trust through integrity and impartiality. Accepting gifts or prioritizing profit violates these
principles.
2. You are a Government Program Manager and suspect the contractor's test results in a
proposal are inaccurate. What should you do?
A. Ignore the discrepancy since the contractor is responsible for accuracy
B. Inform the Contracting Officer of your findings
C. Publicly confront the contractor during a program review
D. Remove the test results from the proposal yourself
Correct: B — Inform the Contracting Officer of your findings.
Rationale: Suspected inaccuracies must be reported to the Contracting Officer, who has authority
to address procurement integrity issues.
3. A retired Colonel has been hired by ACME Corporation as an expert consultant for new
weapons procurement. Fourteen months prior, he was the Chief Contracting Officer for
that same activity. You are the new Program Manager. What should you do?
A. Be aware of his new role, and if he attempts to communicate with you, raise your concern to
your boss or the Contracting Office
B. Not be concerned with the former Colonel's role at ACME Corp
C. Have an off-the-record talk with the retired Colonel's boss
D. Not be concerned if he attempts to communicate with you on behalf of ACME
Correct: A — Be aware of his new role, and if he attempts to communicate with you, raise
your concern to your boss or the Contracting Office.
Rationale: Post-government employment restrictions create potential conflicts. You must report
any communication attempts to appropriate authorities.
4. As a Government employee, which statement about gifts from contractors is correct?
A. You must accept any gift under $20 offered by a contractor
B. You may decline a gift if acceptance would cause a reasonable person to question your
integrity
C. You may accept a single gift valued at $40 from a contractor
D. You may solicit gifts based on your official government position
,Correct: B — You may decline a gift if acceptance would cause a reasonable person to
question your integrity.
Rationale: Even permissible gifts should be declined if they create an appearance of impropriety.
Soliciting gifts is never allowed.
5. Which of the following constitutes a violation of the Procurement Integrity Act?
A. Attending a contractor-sponsored industry day
B. Disclosing contractor proposal information before award
C. Reviewing a contractor's past performance records
D. Participating in a source selection evaluation board
Correct: B — Disclosing contractor proposal information before award.
Rationale: The Procurement Integrity Act prohibits unauthorized disclosure of proprietary or
source selection information.
Section 2: Foundational Systems Acquisition (ACQ 1010)
6. What is the statutory definition of "System Acquisition Management"?
A. The process of researching cutting-edge technologies for future warfare
B. The process used to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs, provide mission
improvements, and are timely and reasonably priced
C. The legislative process by which Congress allocates defense spending
D. The logistical process of maintaining existing weapon systems
Correct: B — The process used to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs, provide
mission improvements, and are timely and reasonably priced.
Rationale: This definition captures the balance of user needs, mission improvement, timeliness,
and cost.
7. Which law serves as the principal mechanism by which Congress modifies defense
acquisition structures annually?
A. Title 10 of the U.S. Code
B. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)
C. The Goldwater-Nichols Act
D. The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)
Correct: D — The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA).
, Rationale: The NDAA is passed annually and is Congress's primary tool for shaping defense
policy and acquisition reform.
8. The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD(A&S)) also holds
which specific title concerning acquisition oversight?
A. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
B. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE)
C. Program Executive Officer (PEO)
D. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE)
Correct: B — Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE).
Rationale: The USD(A&S) is statutorily designated as the DAE, serving as the senior acquisition
official responsible for supervising the Defense Acquisition System.
9. Which official has the overall responsibility for a program, including the authority to
approve entry into the next acquisition phase?
A. Program Manager (PM)
B. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
C. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
D. Director of Operational Test & Evaluation (DOT&E)
Correct: B — Milestone Decision Authority (MDA).
Rationale: The MDA holds accountability for cost, schedule, and performance and decides if a
program is ready to move between phases.
10. The three major Decision Support Systems (DSS) for defense acquisition are JCIDS,
PPBE, and DAS. Which describes the PPBE system?
A. Event-driven; used to develop and acquire the item
B. Needs-driven; used to identify capability gaps
C. Calendar-driven; used for resource allocation and budgeting
D. Threat-driven; used only for urgent operational needs
Correct: C — Calendar-driven; used for resource allocation and budgeting.
Rationale: PPBE (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, Execution) is strictly calendar-driven to
support the President's Budget submission.
4890V) Latest Update 2026|2027| A
Comprehensive Review Of 200 Practice
Questions with Answers and Rationales| Pass
Guaranteed
Introduction
The PM Practitioner Certification Exam (PMT 4890V) is the culminating assessment required
to achieve the DoD Program Management Practitioner Certification. This closed-book, 100-
question multiple-choice exam is delivered by Pearson VUE and requires a minimum passing
score of 70%.
The exam content is weighted across six prerequisite courses:
• ACQ 2020 (Intermediate Systems Acquisition, Part A) — 40 questions
• ACQ 1010 (Fundamentals of Systems Acquisition Management) — 25 questions
• ACQ 2030 (Intermediate Systems Acquisition, Part B) — 25 questions
• PMT 0141 (IPT Management) — 5 questions
• PMT 2570 (Program Management Tools) — 3 questions
• ACQ 0030 (Acquisition Ethics) — 2 questions
Section 1: Acquisition Ethics (ACQ 0030)
1. Which of the following is a core ethical principle for government and contractor
acquisition professionals?
A. Maximizing contractor profit above all other considerations
B. Placing personal financial interests ahead of public trust
C. Acting with integrity, impartiality, and avoiding conflicts of interest
D. Accepting gifts from contractors as a standard business courtesy
Correct: C — Acting with integrity, impartiality, and avoiding conflicts of interest.
,Rationale: Core ethical principles require government acquisition professionals to maintain
public trust through integrity and impartiality. Accepting gifts or prioritizing profit violates these
principles.
2. You are a Government Program Manager and suspect the contractor's test results in a
proposal are inaccurate. What should you do?
A. Ignore the discrepancy since the contractor is responsible for accuracy
B. Inform the Contracting Officer of your findings
C. Publicly confront the contractor during a program review
D. Remove the test results from the proposal yourself
Correct: B — Inform the Contracting Officer of your findings.
Rationale: Suspected inaccuracies must be reported to the Contracting Officer, who has authority
to address procurement integrity issues.
3. A retired Colonel has been hired by ACME Corporation as an expert consultant for new
weapons procurement. Fourteen months prior, he was the Chief Contracting Officer for
that same activity. You are the new Program Manager. What should you do?
A. Be aware of his new role, and if he attempts to communicate with you, raise your concern to
your boss or the Contracting Office
B. Not be concerned with the former Colonel's role at ACME Corp
C. Have an off-the-record talk with the retired Colonel's boss
D. Not be concerned if he attempts to communicate with you on behalf of ACME
Correct: A — Be aware of his new role, and if he attempts to communicate with you, raise
your concern to your boss or the Contracting Office.
Rationale: Post-government employment restrictions create potential conflicts. You must report
any communication attempts to appropriate authorities.
4. As a Government employee, which statement about gifts from contractors is correct?
A. You must accept any gift under $20 offered by a contractor
B. You may decline a gift if acceptance would cause a reasonable person to question your
integrity
C. You may accept a single gift valued at $40 from a contractor
D. You may solicit gifts based on your official government position
,Correct: B — You may decline a gift if acceptance would cause a reasonable person to
question your integrity.
Rationale: Even permissible gifts should be declined if they create an appearance of impropriety.
Soliciting gifts is never allowed.
5. Which of the following constitutes a violation of the Procurement Integrity Act?
A. Attending a contractor-sponsored industry day
B. Disclosing contractor proposal information before award
C. Reviewing a contractor's past performance records
D. Participating in a source selection evaluation board
Correct: B — Disclosing contractor proposal information before award.
Rationale: The Procurement Integrity Act prohibits unauthorized disclosure of proprietary or
source selection information.
Section 2: Foundational Systems Acquisition (ACQ 1010)
6. What is the statutory definition of "System Acquisition Management"?
A. The process of researching cutting-edge technologies for future warfare
B. The process used to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs, provide mission
improvements, and are timely and reasonably priced
C. The legislative process by which Congress allocates defense spending
D. The logistical process of maintaining existing weapon systems
Correct: B — The process used to acquire quality products that satisfy user needs, provide
mission improvements, and are timely and reasonably priced.
Rationale: This definition captures the balance of user needs, mission improvement, timeliness,
and cost.
7. Which law serves as the principal mechanism by which Congress modifies defense
acquisition structures annually?
A. Title 10 of the U.S. Code
B. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)
C. The Goldwater-Nichols Act
D. The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)
Correct: D — The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA).
, Rationale: The NDAA is passed annually and is Congress's primary tool for shaping defense
policy and acquisition reform.
8. The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (USD(A&S)) also holds
which specific title concerning acquisition oversight?
A. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
B. Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE)
C. Program Executive Officer (PEO)
D. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE)
Correct: B — Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE).
Rationale: The USD(A&S) is statutorily designated as the DAE, serving as the senior acquisition
official responsible for supervising the Defense Acquisition System.
9. Which official has the overall responsibility for a program, including the authority to
approve entry into the next acquisition phase?
A. Program Manager (PM)
B. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
C. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
D. Director of Operational Test & Evaluation (DOT&E)
Correct: B — Milestone Decision Authority (MDA).
Rationale: The MDA holds accountability for cost, schedule, and performance and decides if a
program is ready to move between phases.
10. The three major Decision Support Systems (DSS) for defense acquisition are JCIDS,
PPBE, and DAS. Which describes the PPBE system?
A. Event-driven; used to develop and acquire the item
B. Needs-driven; used to identify capability gaps
C. Calendar-driven; used for resource allocation and budgeting
D. Threat-driven; used only for urgent operational needs
Correct: C — Calendar-driven; used for resource allocation and budgeting.
Rationale: PPBE (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, Execution) is strictly calendar-driven to
support the President's Budget submission.
