SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM
REVIEW – ATTITUDES, PERSUASION, SOCIAL
INFLUENCE, RELATIONSHIPS, GROUP BEHAVIOR &
PREJUDICE
Comprehensive Test Bank & Question Bank | Verified Academic Standards
Examination Preparation | 2026/2027 Updated Edition
SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM REVIEW ...
Examination Questions & Rationales (260 Items)
Question 1.
During a physical examination, the clinician observes dullness on percussion over the left
lower lung base accompanied by decreased breath sounds and decreased tactile fremitus.
These clinical findings are most characteristic of which underlying condition?
A) Lobar pneumonia consolidation
B) Pleural effusion
C) Simple pneumothorax
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary emphysema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pleural effusion accumulates fluid in the pleural space, insulating the lung parenchyma from the chest
wall. This dampens sound conduction (decreased tactile fremitus, decreased breath sounds) and yields
dullness to percussion. In contrast, lobar consolidation (A) produces increased tactile fremitus and
bronchial breath sounds due to dense alveolar fluid transmission. Pneumothorax (C) and emphysema (D)
produce hyperresonance.
Question 2.
Which regulatory enzyme serves as the primary rate-limiting and committed checkpoint in the biochemical pathway of
glycolysis?
A) Hexokinase
B) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate using ATP. It represents the primary committed, non-reversible step regulated
allosterically by ATP, AMP, and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate. Hexokinase (A) is an earlier non-committed
step, and glucose-6-phosphatase (D) belongs to gluconeogenesis.
Page 1
,Question 3.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 is being counseled on dietary modifications. Which electrolyte restriction is
most crucial to avoid life-threatening neuromuscular and cardiac conduction abnormalities?
A) Dietary potassium
B) Dietary calcium
C) Vitamin D intake
D) Dietary insoluble fiber
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As renal glomerular filtration declines below 30 mL/min/1.73m², distal tubular potassium secretion is
severely impaired. Excessive dietary potassium leads to hyperkalemia, causing cardiac membrane
depolarization, peaked T-waves, PR prolongation, wide QRS complexes, and sudden fatal asystole.
Dietary potassium restriction is critical.
Question 4.
A client diagnosed with acute decompensated heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push. Prior to administration,
which pre-administration clinical assessment finding is the HIGHEST priority for the nurse to evaluate?
A) Serum potassium level and baseline blood pressure
B) 24-hour dietary sodium intake log
C) Last bowel movement and abdominal bowel sounds
D) Capillary blood glucose level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes renal excretion of water, sodium, chloride, and
potassium, placing the client at acute risk for life-threatening hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and
profound hypotension. Administering furosemide without assessing potassium can precipitate fatal
cardiac ventricular arrhythmias. Distractor options (B, C, D) represent non-urgent routine parameters
that do not pose immediate life-threatening physiological complications.
Question 5.
A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who underwent open abdominal surgery 6 hours ago. The client suddenly reports
sharp pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Vital signs reveal SpO2 87% on room air, heart rate 118 bpm, and respiratory
rate 28 breaths/min. Which initial action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the prescribed PRN oral opioid analgesic and encourage incentive spirometry
B) Elevate the head of the bed, apply supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula, and notify the rapid response team
C) Auscultate bowel sounds and inspect surgical incision for wound dehiscence
D) Assist the client to ambulate around the nursing unit to relieve trapped flatus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, tachycardia, and severe hypoxemia in a
postoperative client strongly suggests acute pulmonary embolism (PE). Immediate positioning in
high-Fowler's, supplemental oxygenation, and activating the rapid response team address acute
airway/breathing stabilization. Ambulation (D) or sedation (A) without oxygenation is contraindicated
and life-threatening.
Page 2
,Question 6.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with suspected diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The provider orders an
intravenous regular insulin infusion. Which laboratory parameter must be confirmed to be above 3.3 mEq/L before initiating
insulin therapy?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum bicarbonate
D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin drives extracellular potassium into intracellular compartments, dramatically lowering circulating
serum potassium. If insulin is administered when serum potassium is below 3.3 mEq/L, severe
hypokalemia, respiratory muscle paralysis, and lethal ventricular arrhythmias (e.g., ventricular
tachycardia or fibrillation) can ensue. Potassium repletion must precede insulin if levels are deficient.
Question 7.
A client receiving vancomycin IV for severe MRSA bacteremia reports sudden flushing of the face, neck, and upper torso with
pruritus and a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg. What is the nurse's priority response?
A) Stop or slow the vancomycin infusion rate immediately and assess airway stability
B) Administer a rapid bolus of normal saline and double the infusion rate
C) Reassure the client that facial flushing is a normal expected benign reaction
D) Document the reaction as an IgE-mediated anaphylactic shock and discard the line
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This reaction describes Vancomycin Infusion Reaction (historically termed red man syndrome), caused
by rapid rate-dependent degranulation of mast cells and histamine release. It is not an IgE-mediated
allergy. Stopping or significantly slowing the infusion (to run over at least 60–120 minutes) and
administering antihistamines will resolve the symptoms while preserving hemodynamic stability.
Question 8.
A client taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 7.2 with no active clinical
bleeding. Which reversal agent and prescription should the nurse anticipate?
A) Protamine sulfate 50 mg IV
B) Oral Vitamin K (phytonadione) and withholding subsequent doses of warfarin
C) Immediate transfusion of 4 units of uncrossed packed red blood cells
D) Intravenous heparin infusion at 18 units/kg/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an elevated INR between 4.5 and 10 without serious bleeding, current CHEST guidelines recommend
withholding warfarin and administering low-dose oral Vitamin K (phytonadione), which predictably
reverses coagulopathy within 24 hours. Protamine sulfate (A) is the specific reversal agent for heparin,
not warfarin.
Page 3
, Question 9.
A nurse is teaching a client who has been newly prescribed levothyroxine for primary hypothyroidism. Which instruction is
essential to maximize absorption and clinical efficacy?
A) Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, at least 30 to 60 minutes before
breakfast
B) Take the medication with calcium carbonate and iron supplements with dinner
C) Take the medication only when experiencing symptoms of fatigue or cold intolerance
D) Chew the tablet thoroughly after eating a high-fiber grapefruit breakfast
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is significantly decreased when ingested with food, calcium, iron, or dietary
fiber. It must be taken on an empty stomach first thing in the morning with water. Taking with calcium or
iron (B) binds the drug in the GI tract, preventing therapeutic bioavailability.
Question 10.
A provider prescribes potassium chloride 20 mEq IV piggyback diluted in 100 mL 0.9% Normal Saline to infuse over 2 hours. At
what rate in mL/hr should the nurse set the intravenous infusion pump?
A) 25 mL/hr
B) 50 mL/hr
C) 100 mL/hr
D) 200 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Formula: Total Volume (mL) ÷ Total Time (hr) = Infusion Rate (mL/hr). Here, 100 mL ÷ 2 hours = 50
mL/hr. Infusing at 100 mL/hr (C) would deliver the entire bag in 1 hour, exceeding the recommended safe
maximum peripheral potassium infusion rate of 10 mEq/hr and risking chemical phlebitis and cardiac
arrest.
Question 11.
An order reads: Cefazolin 750 mg IV every 8 hours. The pharmacy supplies cefazolin reconstituted powder at a concentration of
250 mg/mL. How many milliliters (mL) should the nurse draw up per dose?
A) 1.5 mL
B) 3.0 mL
C) 4.5 mL
D) 6.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Formula: Desired ÷ Have × Volume = (750 mg ÷ 250 mg) × 1 mL = 3.0 mL. Administering 1.5 mL (A)
yields only 375 mg (subtherapeutic dose), whereas 4.5 mL (C) or 6.0 mL (D) causes supratherapeutic
overdose and potential neurotoxicity.
Page 4
REVIEW – ATTITUDES, PERSUASION, SOCIAL
INFLUENCE, RELATIONSHIPS, GROUP BEHAVIOR &
PREJUDICE
Comprehensive Test Bank & Question Bank | Verified Academic Standards
Examination Preparation | 2026/2027 Updated Edition
SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM REVIEW ...
Examination Questions & Rationales (260 Items)
Question 1.
During a physical examination, the clinician observes dullness on percussion over the left
lower lung base accompanied by decreased breath sounds and decreased tactile fremitus.
These clinical findings are most characteristic of which underlying condition?
A) Lobar pneumonia consolidation
B) Pleural effusion
C) Simple pneumothorax
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary emphysema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pleural effusion accumulates fluid in the pleural space, insulating the lung parenchyma from the chest
wall. This dampens sound conduction (decreased tactile fremitus, decreased breath sounds) and yields
dullness to percussion. In contrast, lobar consolidation (A) produces increased tactile fremitus and
bronchial breath sounds due to dense alveolar fluid transmission. Pneumothorax (C) and emphysema (D)
produce hyperresonance.
Question 2.
Which regulatory enzyme serves as the primary rate-limiting and committed checkpoint in the biochemical pathway of
glycolysis?
A) Hexokinase
B) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate using ATP. It represents the primary committed, non-reversible step regulated
allosterically by ATP, AMP, and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate. Hexokinase (A) is an earlier non-committed
step, and glucose-6-phosphatase (D) belongs to gluconeogenesis.
Page 1
,Question 3.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 is being counseled on dietary modifications. Which electrolyte restriction is
most crucial to avoid life-threatening neuromuscular and cardiac conduction abnormalities?
A) Dietary potassium
B) Dietary calcium
C) Vitamin D intake
D) Dietary insoluble fiber
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As renal glomerular filtration declines below 30 mL/min/1.73m², distal tubular potassium secretion is
severely impaired. Excessive dietary potassium leads to hyperkalemia, causing cardiac membrane
depolarization, peaked T-waves, PR prolongation, wide QRS complexes, and sudden fatal asystole.
Dietary potassium restriction is critical.
Question 4.
A client diagnosed with acute decompensated heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push. Prior to administration,
which pre-administration clinical assessment finding is the HIGHEST priority for the nurse to evaluate?
A) Serum potassium level and baseline blood pressure
B) 24-hour dietary sodium intake log
C) Last bowel movement and abdominal bowel sounds
D) Capillary blood glucose level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes renal excretion of water, sodium, chloride, and
potassium, placing the client at acute risk for life-threatening hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and
profound hypotension. Administering furosemide without assessing potassium can precipitate fatal
cardiac ventricular arrhythmias. Distractor options (B, C, D) represent non-urgent routine parameters
that do not pose immediate life-threatening physiological complications.
Question 5.
A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who underwent open abdominal surgery 6 hours ago. The client suddenly reports
sharp pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Vital signs reveal SpO2 87% on room air, heart rate 118 bpm, and respiratory
rate 28 breaths/min. Which initial action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the prescribed PRN oral opioid analgesic and encourage incentive spirometry
B) Elevate the head of the bed, apply supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula, and notify the rapid response team
C) Auscultate bowel sounds and inspect surgical incision for wound dehiscence
D) Assist the client to ambulate around the nursing unit to relieve trapped flatus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, tachycardia, and severe hypoxemia in a
postoperative client strongly suggests acute pulmonary embolism (PE). Immediate positioning in
high-Fowler's, supplemental oxygenation, and activating the rapid response team address acute
airway/breathing stabilization. Ambulation (D) or sedation (A) without oxygenation is contraindicated
and life-threatening.
Page 2
,Question 6.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with suspected diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The provider orders an
intravenous regular insulin infusion. Which laboratory parameter must be confirmed to be above 3.3 mEq/L before initiating
insulin therapy?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum bicarbonate
D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin drives extracellular potassium into intracellular compartments, dramatically lowering circulating
serum potassium. If insulin is administered when serum potassium is below 3.3 mEq/L, severe
hypokalemia, respiratory muscle paralysis, and lethal ventricular arrhythmias (e.g., ventricular
tachycardia or fibrillation) can ensue. Potassium repletion must precede insulin if levels are deficient.
Question 7.
A client receiving vancomycin IV for severe MRSA bacteremia reports sudden flushing of the face, neck, and upper torso with
pruritus and a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg. What is the nurse's priority response?
A) Stop or slow the vancomycin infusion rate immediately and assess airway stability
B) Administer a rapid bolus of normal saline and double the infusion rate
C) Reassure the client that facial flushing is a normal expected benign reaction
D) Document the reaction as an IgE-mediated anaphylactic shock and discard the line
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This reaction describes Vancomycin Infusion Reaction (historically termed red man syndrome), caused
by rapid rate-dependent degranulation of mast cells and histamine release. It is not an IgE-mediated
allergy. Stopping or significantly slowing the infusion (to run over at least 60–120 minutes) and
administering antihistamines will resolve the symptoms while preserving hemodynamic stability.
Question 8.
A client taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 7.2 with no active clinical
bleeding. Which reversal agent and prescription should the nurse anticipate?
A) Protamine sulfate 50 mg IV
B) Oral Vitamin K (phytonadione) and withholding subsequent doses of warfarin
C) Immediate transfusion of 4 units of uncrossed packed red blood cells
D) Intravenous heparin infusion at 18 units/kg/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an elevated INR between 4.5 and 10 without serious bleeding, current CHEST guidelines recommend
withholding warfarin and administering low-dose oral Vitamin K (phytonadione), which predictably
reverses coagulopathy within 24 hours. Protamine sulfate (A) is the specific reversal agent for heparin,
not warfarin.
Page 3
, Question 9.
A nurse is teaching a client who has been newly prescribed levothyroxine for primary hypothyroidism. Which instruction is
essential to maximize absorption and clinical efficacy?
A) Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, at least 30 to 60 minutes before
breakfast
B) Take the medication with calcium carbonate and iron supplements with dinner
C) Take the medication only when experiencing symptoms of fatigue or cold intolerance
D) Chew the tablet thoroughly after eating a high-fiber grapefruit breakfast
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is significantly decreased when ingested with food, calcium, iron, or dietary
fiber. It must be taken on an empty stomach first thing in the morning with water. Taking with calcium or
iron (B) binds the drug in the GI tract, preventing therapeutic bioavailability.
Question 10.
A provider prescribes potassium chloride 20 mEq IV piggyback diluted in 100 mL 0.9% Normal Saline to infuse over 2 hours. At
what rate in mL/hr should the nurse set the intravenous infusion pump?
A) 25 mL/hr
B) 50 mL/hr
C) 100 mL/hr
D) 200 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Formula: Total Volume (mL) ÷ Total Time (hr) = Infusion Rate (mL/hr). Here, 100 mL ÷ 2 hours = 50
mL/hr. Infusing at 100 mL/hr (C) would deliver the entire bag in 1 hour, exceeding the recommended safe
maximum peripheral potassium infusion rate of 10 mEq/hr and risking chemical phlebitis and cardiac
arrest.
Question 11.
An order reads: Cefazolin 750 mg IV every 8 hours. The pharmacy supplies cefazolin reconstituted powder at a concentration of
250 mg/mL. How many milliliters (mL) should the nurse draw up per dose?
A) 1.5 mL
B) 3.0 mL
C) 4.5 mL
D) 6.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Formula: Desired ÷ Have × Volume = (750 mg ÷ 250 mg) × 1 mL = 3.0 mL. Administering 1.5 mL (A)
yields only 375 mg (subtherapeutic dose), whereas 4.5 mL (C) or 6.0 mL (D) causes supratherapeutic
overdose and potential neurotoxicity.
Page 4
