68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
68W LPC EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026/2027
U.S. Army Combat Medic (68W) Limited Primary Care (LPC) Certification Examination
Aligned with AMEDD Standards · TCCC Guidelines (2026/2027 Edition) · 68W LPC Curriculum
Total Questions: 150 | Sections: 8 | Format: Multiple Choice (A–D) | Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall · 50%
Application · 25% Analysis
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question. Mark the correct option by indicating the corresponding letter on your
answer sheet. Each question has only one correct answer. The correct answer and rationale are provided beneath each question for
self-study and instructor review. Rationales reference the 68W LPC curriculum, AMEDD standards, and TCCC guidelines
(2026/2027 edition).
Section Breakdown:
1. Medical Documentation & Administrative Forms (Q1–Q20) — 20 questions
2. Infection Control & Asepsis (Q21–Q35) — 15 questions
3. Pharmacology & Medication Administration (Q36–Q60) — 25 questions
4. Injection Techniques & Parenteral Therapy (Q61–Q80) — 20 questions
5. Microbiology & Disease Processes (Q81–Q95) — 15 questions
6. Patient Assessment & Clinical Procedures (Q96–Q115) — 20 questions
7. TCCC & Trauma Management (Q116–Q135) — 20 questions
8. Leadership & Clinical Decision-Making (Q136–Q150) — 15 questions
Section 1: Medical Documentation & Administrative Forms
Q1: A 24-year-old active-duty Soldier presents to the Role 1 clinic with a three-day history of productive
cough and low-grade fever. After evaluation, the provider determines the Soldier requires 48 hours of
restricted activity in their barracks room with allowance to use the dining facility and latrine only, and
no performance of military duties. Which disposition category applies, and what is the maximum
duration that may be authorized on the DD Form 689 (Individual Sick Call Slip)?
A. Duty — full duty without restrictions; no maximum duration
B. Quarters — maximum 72 hours; movement limited to living space, dining facility, and medical
facilities [CORRECT]
C. Bed rest — restricted to bed; allowance for dining facility and latrine; no military duties; maximum 72
hours
D. Hospital — admission to a medical treatment facility for inpatient care; no maximum duration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the 68W LPC curriculum and AMEDD documentation standards, the disposition described is Quarters,
which permits the Soldier to remain in their living space with brief movement to the dining facility, latrine, and medical
facilities only. Quarters may be authorized for a maximum of 72 hours; longer restrictions require re-evaluation. Duty
(A) imposes no restrictions, Bed rest (C) restricts the patient to bed, and Hospital (D) requires inpatient admission — none
of which match this clinical scenario.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 1 For Training Use
,68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q2: A combat medic is completing a SF 600 (Chronological Record of Medical Care) entry after treating
a Soldier for a laceration. The medic discovers that the documented dose of lidocaine was entered
incorrectly. Which action complies with AMEDD standards for correcting documentation errors in the
medical record?
A. Erase the incorrect entry completely and write the correct dose above it
B. Use white-out to obscure the error, then write the correct dose and initial the change
C. Draw a single line through the error, write "error" beside it, initial the change, and document
the correct dose [CORRECT]
D. Tear out the page and rewrite the entire entry on a new SF 600 page
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: AMEDD and 68W LPC documentation standards require that errors in the medical record be corrected by
drawing a single line through the incorrect entry, writing the word "error" beside it, and initialing the correction; the
correct information is then documented. Erasing (A), using white-out (B), or removing pages (D) destroys the audit trail
and violates the integrity of the medical record. The SF 600 must be written in black or blue-black ink, and corrections
must preserve the original entry.
Q3: During sick call, a Soldier reports that the knee pain for which they are being evaluated began
during a training accident three weeks ago while on active duty. The provider documents this condition
on the DD Form 689. Which term correctly identifies this injury, and why is accurate documentation
critical for the Soldier's benefits?
A. EPTS (Existing Prior to Service) — the condition predates military service and is not service-connected
B. Line of Duty (LOD) — condition incurred while performing military duties; affects veteran
benefits and medical coverage [CORRECT]
C. Pre-existing condition with no documentation required — the Soldier is responsible for any treatment
costs
D. Congenital anomaly — present at birth and not eligible for military medical evaluation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A condition incurred during a training accident while on active duty meets the criteria for a Line of Duty
(LOD) determination, which has direct implications for the Soldier's medical benefits, disability evaluation, and veteran
affairs coverage. Accurate documentation on the DD Form 689 supports the LOD investigation. EPTS (A) refers to
conditions that existed prior to service; congenital anomalies (D) are unrelated, and (C) is incorrect because all evaluated
conditions require documentation per AMEDD standards.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 2 For Training Use
,68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q4: A junior medic asks the senior NCO about who may access a patient's medical information in a
deployed setting. The patient is an active-duty Soldier seen at the battalion aid station. According to 68W
LPC curriculum and HIPAA compliance in military medicine, which of the following categories of
individuals has legitimate access to the medical record?
A. The patient, patient care personnel, medical researchers, and medical educators [CORRECT]
B. The patient's first-line supervisor, battalion commander, and any unit Soldier requesting the information
C. The Soldier's spouse, family members, and any federal law enforcement officer without a warrant
D. Only the treating provider; no other personnel may access the record under any circumstances
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Under HIPAA as applied in military medicine, legitimate access to medical information is granted to the
patient, patient care personnel directly involved in treatment, medical researchers with proper authorization, and medical
educators for training purposes. Personnel not involved in patient care may access records only with a court order,
hospital accreditation requirement, or explicit authorization by the patient. Options B, C, and D reflect over-broad or
overly restrictive interpretations that violate HIPAA military medical compliance.
Q5: A provider evaluates a Soldier for an upper respiratory infection and decides to place the Soldier on
quarters for 48 hours. The Soldier requests a copy of the medical record to share with a civilian
employer. Which statement regarding medical record access and disclosure is most accurate under
AMEDD standards?
A. The Soldier has no right to access their medical record while on active duty
B. The Soldier has the right to access their own medical information; release to third parties
requires written authorization [CORRECT]
C. The Soldier's commander may automatically receive a copy of the entire medical record without
authorization
D. Civilian employers may request and receive the full medical record by submitting a written request
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AMEDD standards and HIPAA grant the patient the right to access their own medical information. However,
disclosure to third parties — including civilian employers, family members, or commanders in most cases — requires the
patient's written authorization or another legal basis such as a court order. Option A is incorrect; the patient always has
access. Options C and D violate HIPAA by allowing unauthorized disclosure to third parties.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 3 For Training Use
, 68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q6: A medic is documenting a patient encounter using the SOAP note format on the SF 600. The patient
is a 28-year-old Soldier complaining of acute lower back pain after lifting equipment. Which entry would
most appropriately appear in the Subjective section of the SOAP note?
A. "Lumbar spine palpation reveals tenderness at L4-L5; range of motion reduced 50% in flexion; straight
leg raise positive on the right at 40 degrees"
B. "Patient reports acute-onset lower back pain after lifting a 60-pound ammunition can during
training; denies radiating leg pain, numbness, or bowel/bladder dysfunction; rates pain 7/10"
[CORRECT]
C. "Acute mechanical low back strain, likely muscular origin; no neurologic compromise suspected at this
time"
D. "Administer Meloxicam 15 mg PO daily for 14 days; quarters 48 hours; follow-up sick call in 72 hours
if no improvement"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Subjective (S) section of a SOAP note contains information reported by the patient, including the chief
complaint, history of present illness, mechanism of injury, and associated symptoms. Option B is the patient's subjective
report. Option A represents Objective (O) physical examination findings; Option C is the Assessment (A); Option D is the
Plan (P). Proper SOAP documentation is a 68W LPC curriculum requirement.
Q7: A Soldier reports to sick call with complaints of chest pain. After evaluation, the provider places the
Soldier on bed rest. Which restrictions apply to bed rest status per the 68W LPC curriculum, and what is
the rationale for these limitations?
A. The Soldier may perform light military duties but must remain in the barracks
B. The Soldier is restricted to bed with allowances for the dining facility and latrine only; no
military duties are performed [CORRECT]
C. The Soldier may attend all required formations but must rest between events
D. The Soldier is restricted to bed with no allowances for any movement, including latrine use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the 68W LPC curriculum, a Soldier on bed rest is restricted to bed with allowances only for the dining
facility and latrine; no military duties may be performed. This restriction is more stringent than quarters (which permits
limited movement) and is reserved for conditions requiring significant activity restriction. Option A describes quarters, not
bed rest; Option C is contrary to the restriction; Option D is overly restrictive and impractical.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 4 For Training Use
68W LPC EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026/2027
U.S. Army Combat Medic (68W) Limited Primary Care (LPC) Certification Examination
Aligned with AMEDD Standards · TCCC Guidelines (2026/2027 Edition) · 68W LPC Curriculum
Total Questions: 150 | Sections: 8 | Format: Multiple Choice (A–D) | Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall · 50%
Application · 25% Analysis
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question. Mark the correct option by indicating the corresponding letter on your
answer sheet. Each question has only one correct answer. The correct answer and rationale are provided beneath each question for
self-study and instructor review. Rationales reference the 68W LPC curriculum, AMEDD standards, and TCCC guidelines
(2026/2027 edition).
Section Breakdown:
1. Medical Documentation & Administrative Forms (Q1–Q20) — 20 questions
2. Infection Control & Asepsis (Q21–Q35) — 15 questions
3. Pharmacology & Medication Administration (Q36–Q60) — 25 questions
4. Injection Techniques & Parenteral Therapy (Q61–Q80) — 20 questions
5. Microbiology & Disease Processes (Q81–Q95) — 15 questions
6. Patient Assessment & Clinical Procedures (Q96–Q115) — 20 questions
7. TCCC & Trauma Management (Q116–Q135) — 20 questions
8. Leadership & Clinical Decision-Making (Q136–Q150) — 15 questions
Section 1: Medical Documentation & Administrative Forms
Q1: A 24-year-old active-duty Soldier presents to the Role 1 clinic with a three-day history of productive
cough and low-grade fever. After evaluation, the provider determines the Soldier requires 48 hours of
restricted activity in their barracks room with allowance to use the dining facility and latrine only, and
no performance of military duties. Which disposition category applies, and what is the maximum
duration that may be authorized on the DD Form 689 (Individual Sick Call Slip)?
A. Duty — full duty without restrictions; no maximum duration
B. Quarters — maximum 72 hours; movement limited to living space, dining facility, and medical
facilities [CORRECT]
C. Bed rest — restricted to bed; allowance for dining facility and latrine; no military duties; maximum 72
hours
D. Hospital — admission to a medical treatment facility for inpatient care; no maximum duration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the 68W LPC curriculum and AMEDD documentation standards, the disposition described is Quarters,
which permits the Soldier to remain in their living space with brief movement to the dining facility, latrine, and medical
facilities only. Quarters may be authorized for a maximum of 72 hours; longer restrictions require re-evaluation. Duty
(A) imposes no restrictions, Bed rest (C) restricts the patient to bed, and Hospital (D) requires inpatient admission — none
of which match this clinical scenario.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 1 For Training Use
,68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q2: A combat medic is completing a SF 600 (Chronological Record of Medical Care) entry after treating
a Soldier for a laceration. The medic discovers that the documented dose of lidocaine was entered
incorrectly. Which action complies with AMEDD standards for correcting documentation errors in the
medical record?
A. Erase the incorrect entry completely and write the correct dose above it
B. Use white-out to obscure the error, then write the correct dose and initial the change
C. Draw a single line through the error, write "error" beside it, initial the change, and document
the correct dose [CORRECT]
D. Tear out the page and rewrite the entire entry on a new SF 600 page
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: AMEDD and 68W LPC documentation standards require that errors in the medical record be corrected by
drawing a single line through the incorrect entry, writing the word "error" beside it, and initialing the correction; the
correct information is then documented. Erasing (A), using white-out (B), or removing pages (D) destroys the audit trail
and violates the integrity of the medical record. The SF 600 must be written in black or blue-black ink, and corrections
must preserve the original entry.
Q3: During sick call, a Soldier reports that the knee pain for which they are being evaluated began
during a training accident three weeks ago while on active duty. The provider documents this condition
on the DD Form 689. Which term correctly identifies this injury, and why is accurate documentation
critical for the Soldier's benefits?
A. EPTS (Existing Prior to Service) — the condition predates military service and is not service-connected
B. Line of Duty (LOD) — condition incurred while performing military duties; affects veteran
benefits and medical coverage [CORRECT]
C. Pre-existing condition with no documentation required — the Soldier is responsible for any treatment
costs
D. Congenital anomaly — present at birth and not eligible for military medical evaluation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A condition incurred during a training accident while on active duty meets the criteria for a Line of Duty
(LOD) determination, which has direct implications for the Soldier's medical benefits, disability evaluation, and veteran
affairs coverage. Accurate documentation on the DD Form 689 supports the LOD investigation. EPTS (A) refers to
conditions that existed prior to service; congenital anomalies (D) are unrelated, and (C) is incorrect because all evaluated
conditions require documentation per AMEDD standards.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 2 For Training Use
,68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q4: A junior medic asks the senior NCO about who may access a patient's medical information in a
deployed setting. The patient is an active-duty Soldier seen at the battalion aid station. According to 68W
LPC curriculum and HIPAA compliance in military medicine, which of the following categories of
individuals has legitimate access to the medical record?
A. The patient, patient care personnel, medical researchers, and medical educators [CORRECT]
B. The patient's first-line supervisor, battalion commander, and any unit Soldier requesting the information
C. The Soldier's spouse, family members, and any federal law enforcement officer without a warrant
D. Only the treating provider; no other personnel may access the record under any circumstances
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Under HIPAA as applied in military medicine, legitimate access to medical information is granted to the
patient, patient care personnel directly involved in treatment, medical researchers with proper authorization, and medical
educators for training purposes. Personnel not involved in patient care may access records only with a court order,
hospital accreditation requirement, or explicit authorization by the patient. Options B, C, and D reflect over-broad or
overly restrictive interpretations that violate HIPAA military medical compliance.
Q5: A provider evaluates a Soldier for an upper respiratory infection and decides to place the Soldier on
quarters for 48 hours. The Soldier requests a copy of the medical record to share with a civilian
employer. Which statement regarding medical record access and disclosure is most accurate under
AMEDD standards?
A. The Soldier has no right to access their medical record while on active duty
B. The Soldier has the right to access their own medical information; release to third parties
requires written authorization [CORRECT]
C. The Soldier's commander may automatically receive a copy of the entire medical record without
authorization
D. Civilian employers may request and receive the full medical record by submitting a written request
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AMEDD standards and HIPAA grant the patient the right to access their own medical information. However,
disclosure to third parties — including civilian employers, family members, or commanders in most cases — requires the
patient's written authorization or another legal basis such as a court order. Option A is incorrect; the patient always has
access. Options C and D violate HIPAA by allowing unauthorized disclosure to third parties.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 3 For Training Use
, 68W LPC Exam Questions and Answers 2026/2027 AMEDD | TCCC | 150 Questions
Q6: A medic is documenting a patient encounter using the SOAP note format on the SF 600. The patient
is a 28-year-old Soldier complaining of acute lower back pain after lifting equipment. Which entry would
most appropriately appear in the Subjective section of the SOAP note?
A. "Lumbar spine palpation reveals tenderness at L4-L5; range of motion reduced 50% in flexion; straight
leg raise positive on the right at 40 degrees"
B. "Patient reports acute-onset lower back pain after lifting a 60-pound ammunition can during
training; denies radiating leg pain, numbness, or bowel/bladder dysfunction; rates pain 7/10"
[CORRECT]
C. "Acute mechanical low back strain, likely muscular origin; no neurologic compromise suspected at this
time"
D. "Administer Meloxicam 15 mg PO daily for 14 days; quarters 48 hours; follow-up sick call in 72 hours
if no improvement"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Subjective (S) section of a SOAP note contains information reported by the patient, including the chief
complaint, history of present illness, mechanism of injury, and associated symptoms. Option B is the patient's subjective
report. Option A represents Objective (O) physical examination findings; Option C is the Assessment (A); Option D is the
Plan (P). Proper SOAP documentation is a 68W LPC curriculum requirement.
Q7: A Soldier reports to sick call with complaints of chest pain. After evaluation, the provider places the
Soldier on bed rest. Which restrictions apply to bed rest status per the 68W LPC curriculum, and what is
the rationale for these limitations?
A. The Soldier may perform light military duties but must remain in the barracks
B. The Soldier is restricted to bed with allowances for the dining facility and latrine only; no
military duties are performed [CORRECT]
C. The Soldier may attend all required formations but must rest between events
D. The Soldier is restricted to bed with no allowances for any movement, including latrine use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the 68W LPC curriculum, a Soldier on bed rest is restricted to bed with allowances only for the dining
facility and latrine; no military duties may be performed. This restriction is more stringent than quarters (which permits
limited movement) and is reserved for conditions requiring significant activity restriction. Option A describes quarters, not
bed rest; Option C is contrary to the restriction; Option D is overly restrictive and impractical.
U.S. Army 68W LPC Certification Examination 4 For Training Use
