lOMoAR cPSD| 66549320
NRMS 5190 Advanced Pathophysiology – Exam 1 Questions
and Answers plus Rationale | Graded A+ | Fall 2026-2027 |
Downstate Medical Center
1. Which statement best defines pathophysiology?
A. The study of disease occurrence in human populations
B. The description of the evolution of a disease as acute or chronic
C. The study of the body's response to dysfunction or disease; the physiology of
altered health
D. The designation of the cause of a health problem
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Pathophysiology focuses on altered physiologic processes and the
body’s response to disease or dysfunction.
2. In the disease process, which term refers specifically to the cause of disease?
A. Morphologic change
B. Clinical course
C. Pathogenesis
D. Etiology
Correct Answer : D
Rationale: Etiology is the causative factor or origin of a disease.
3. A student is asked to explain the sequence of events from contact with an
etiologic agent until disease expression. Which concept is being tested?
A. Morbidity
B. Diagnosis
C. Pathogenesis
D. Etiology
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the development and progression of disease
from initial exposure to clinical expression.
4. Where does transcription occur according to the study guide?
A. At the lysosome
B. In the cell nucleus
, lOMoAR cPSD| 66549320
C. In the extracellular space
D. Within the Golgi complex only
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: Transcription of DNA into mRNA occurs in the cell nucleus.
5. Which process uses an mRNA template to synthesize a protein?
A. Osmosis
B. Translation
C. Transcription
D. Endocytosis
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: Translation is the ribosomal synthesis of protein using mRNA as the
template.
6. What is the role of tRNA during protein synthesis?
A. It transports amino acids to ribosomes so the mRNA message can be translated
B. It copies DNA into a complementary DNA strand
C. It destroys excess cell parts
D. It carries cholesterol back to the liver
Correct Answer : A
Rationale: tRNA delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome to match mRNA
codons during translation.
7. Disruption of molecular chaperone mechanisms is associated in the guide
with which outcome?
A. Increased sodium elimination by the kidneys
B. Permanent opening of all ion channels
C. Immediate conversion of epithelial cells to connective tissue
D. Denatured, insoluble proteins that can form inclusion bodies
Correct Answer : D
Rationale: Chaperones help proteins fold correctly; failure leads to denatured,
insoluble protein aggregates and inclusion bodies.
8. What is the main function of cilia on respiratory epithelial linings described in
the guide?
A. Synthesize ribosomal RNA
, lOMoAR cPSD| 66549320
B. Generate ATP for the epithelial cell
C. Sweep bacteria and dust trapped in mucus up the airways toward the mouth
D. Store intracellular calcium
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Respiratory cilia clear mucus, debris, and microbes upward via the
mucociliary escalator.
9. Which human cell type is identified in the guide as having a flagellum?
A. Red blood cell
B. Sperm cell
C. Osteoclast
D. Keratinocyte
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: The sperm cell uses a flagellum for motility.
10. Which statement about mitochondria is supported by the study guide?
A. They lack ribosomes
B. They are the primary site of transcription of nuclear DNA
C. They contain their own DNA and help regulate apoptosis
D. Their DNA is inherited primarily from the father
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Mitochondria have their own DNA and are involved in energy
production and apoptotic regulation.
11. What does the Na+/K+-ATPase pump do?
A. Moves glucose by simple diffusion
B. Moves water from high solute concentration to low solute concentration
C. Moves 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell using ATP
D. Moves 2 Na+ out and 3 K+ in without energy
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in,
consuming ATP.
12. A tissue increases the number of its cells in response to increased demand.
Which adaptation is this?
A. Atrophy
NRMS 5190 Advanced Pathophysiology – Exam 1 Questions
and Answers plus Rationale | Graded A+ | Fall 2026-2027 |
Downstate Medical Center
1. Which statement best defines pathophysiology?
A. The study of disease occurrence in human populations
B. The description of the evolution of a disease as acute or chronic
C. The study of the body's response to dysfunction or disease; the physiology of
altered health
D. The designation of the cause of a health problem
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Pathophysiology focuses on altered physiologic processes and the
body’s response to disease or dysfunction.
2. In the disease process, which term refers specifically to the cause of disease?
A. Morphologic change
B. Clinical course
C. Pathogenesis
D. Etiology
Correct Answer : D
Rationale: Etiology is the causative factor or origin of a disease.
3. A student is asked to explain the sequence of events from contact with an
etiologic agent until disease expression. Which concept is being tested?
A. Morbidity
B. Diagnosis
C. Pathogenesis
D. Etiology
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the development and progression of disease
from initial exposure to clinical expression.
4. Where does transcription occur according to the study guide?
A. At the lysosome
B. In the cell nucleus
, lOMoAR cPSD| 66549320
C. In the extracellular space
D. Within the Golgi complex only
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: Transcription of DNA into mRNA occurs in the cell nucleus.
5. Which process uses an mRNA template to synthesize a protein?
A. Osmosis
B. Translation
C. Transcription
D. Endocytosis
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: Translation is the ribosomal synthesis of protein using mRNA as the
template.
6. What is the role of tRNA during protein synthesis?
A. It transports amino acids to ribosomes so the mRNA message can be translated
B. It copies DNA into a complementary DNA strand
C. It destroys excess cell parts
D. It carries cholesterol back to the liver
Correct Answer : A
Rationale: tRNA delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome to match mRNA
codons during translation.
7. Disruption of molecular chaperone mechanisms is associated in the guide
with which outcome?
A. Increased sodium elimination by the kidneys
B. Permanent opening of all ion channels
C. Immediate conversion of epithelial cells to connective tissue
D. Denatured, insoluble proteins that can form inclusion bodies
Correct Answer : D
Rationale: Chaperones help proteins fold correctly; failure leads to denatured,
insoluble protein aggregates and inclusion bodies.
8. What is the main function of cilia on respiratory epithelial linings described in
the guide?
A. Synthesize ribosomal RNA
, lOMoAR cPSD| 66549320
B. Generate ATP for the epithelial cell
C. Sweep bacteria and dust trapped in mucus up the airways toward the mouth
D. Store intracellular calcium
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Respiratory cilia clear mucus, debris, and microbes upward via the
mucociliary escalator.
9. Which human cell type is identified in the guide as having a flagellum?
A. Red blood cell
B. Sperm cell
C. Osteoclast
D. Keratinocyte
Correct Answer : B
Rationale: The sperm cell uses a flagellum for motility.
10. Which statement about mitochondria is supported by the study guide?
A. They lack ribosomes
B. They are the primary site of transcription of nuclear DNA
C. They contain their own DNA and help regulate apoptosis
D. Their DNA is inherited primarily from the father
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: Mitochondria have their own DNA and are involved in energy
production and apoptotic regulation.
11. What does the Na+/K+-ATPase pump do?
A. Moves glucose by simple diffusion
B. Moves water from high solute concentration to low solute concentration
C. Moves 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell using ATP
D. Moves 2 Na+ out and 3 K+ in without energy
Correct Answer : C
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in,
consuming ATP.
12. A tissue increases the number of its cells in response to increased demand.
Which adaptation is this?
A. Atrophy
