WGU C190 Introduction to Biology Objective Assessment Exam Prep 2026 |
300 Verified Actual Questions & Step-by-Step Detailed Answers Study Guide
(Graded A+, Brand New Pack)
Question 1
A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding
indicates the medication is effective?
A) Increased jugular venous pressure
B) Decreased peripheral edema
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased urine output
Answer: B) Decreased peripheral edema.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload, thereby decreasing
peripheral edema and pulmonary congestion. Increased JVP and decreased urine
output indicate worsening failure, not improvement.
Question 2
The patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. Which medication class
is first-line to improve survival?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Diuretics
Answer: B) ACE inhibitors.
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload and preload, improving survival in HFrEF.
Beta-blockers are also used, but ACE inhibitors are typically first-line.
Question 3
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer vitamin K
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
,C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Apply pressure to all venipuncture sites
Answer: B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider.
Rationale: An INR greater than 5 indicates a high bleeding risk. Holding the dose and
notifying the provider is the safest first step before administering vitamin K, which is
reserved for active bleeding or very high INR values.
Question 4
The patient is on a continuous heparin infusion. Which lab test should be monitored
to adjust the dose?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Fibrinogen
Answer: B) aPTT.
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT). PT/INR is used for warfarin. Platelet count is monitored for HIT but is not used
for dose adjustment.
Question 5
A patient with an acute MI is prescribed morphine. What is the primary reason for
administering morphine?
A) To relieve anxiety
B) To reduce pain and decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) To prevent arrhythmias
D) To lower blood pressure
Answer: B) To reduce pain and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
Rationale: Morphine relieves pain and reduces preload and afterload, decreasing
myocardial oxygen demand. This helps limit infarct size.
,Question 6
Which ECG change is most concerning in a patient with hyperkalemia?
A) U waves
B) Peaked T waves
C) Prolonged PR interval
D) Wide QRS complex
Answer: D) Wide QRS complex.
Rationale: Peaked T waves are early signs, but wide QRS indicates severe hyperkalemia
and risk of ventricular fibrillation. U waves are seen in hypokalemia.
Question 7
The nurse is administering packed RBCs. After 15 minutes, the patient reports chills
and flank pain. What is the priority action?
A) Slow the transfusion
B) Stop the transfusion immediately
C) Administer acetaminophen
D) Continue and monitor
Answer: B) Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Chills and flank pain suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the provider notified. Normal saline
should be infused through new tubing.
Question 8
A patient with a history of GI bleeding has a hemoglobin of 7.2 g/dL. Which finding is
most concerning?
A) Heart rate of 98 bpm
B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
C) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
D) Oxygen saturation of 94%
Answer: B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg.
Rationale: Hypotension in the setting of acute blood loss indicates inadequate
compensation and possible hypovolemic shock, which is more concerning than mild
tachycardia or tachypnea.
, Question 9
Which symptom is classic for a pulmonary embolism?
A) Pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, hypoxia
B) Substernal chest pain relieved by nitroglycerin
C) Sharp pain worsened with movement
D) Burning pain in the epigastric area
Answer: A) Pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, hypoxia.
Rationale: PE typically presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis,
tachypnea, and hypoxia. Nitroglycerin relief suggests angina, not PE.
Question 10
The nurse notes sudden onset of sharp chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis in a
postoperative patient. What is the priority action?
A) Administer morphine
B) Apply oxygen and notify the provider
C) Check vital signs
D) Start an IV line
Answer: B) Apply oxygen and notify the provider.
Rationale: These symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism. Oxygen and immediate
provider notification are priorities. Morphine may be given later for pain, but
oxygenation comes first.
Question 11
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Dry cough
B) Bradycardia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Both A and C
300 Verified Actual Questions & Step-by-Step Detailed Answers Study Guide
(Graded A+, Brand New Pack)
Question 1
A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding
indicates the medication is effective?
A) Increased jugular venous pressure
B) Decreased peripheral edema
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased urine output
Answer: B) Decreased peripheral edema.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload, thereby decreasing
peripheral edema and pulmonary congestion. Increased JVP and decreased urine
output indicate worsening failure, not improvement.
Question 2
The patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. Which medication class
is first-line to improve survival?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Diuretics
Answer: B) ACE inhibitors.
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload and preload, improving survival in HFrEF.
Beta-blockers are also used, but ACE inhibitors are typically first-line.
Question 3
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer vitamin K
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
,C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Apply pressure to all venipuncture sites
Answer: B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider.
Rationale: An INR greater than 5 indicates a high bleeding risk. Holding the dose and
notifying the provider is the safest first step before administering vitamin K, which is
reserved for active bleeding or very high INR values.
Question 4
The patient is on a continuous heparin infusion. Which lab test should be monitored
to adjust the dose?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Fibrinogen
Answer: B) aPTT.
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT). PT/INR is used for warfarin. Platelet count is monitored for HIT but is not used
for dose adjustment.
Question 5
A patient with an acute MI is prescribed morphine. What is the primary reason for
administering morphine?
A) To relieve anxiety
B) To reduce pain and decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) To prevent arrhythmias
D) To lower blood pressure
Answer: B) To reduce pain and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
Rationale: Morphine relieves pain and reduces preload and afterload, decreasing
myocardial oxygen demand. This helps limit infarct size.
,Question 6
Which ECG change is most concerning in a patient with hyperkalemia?
A) U waves
B) Peaked T waves
C) Prolonged PR interval
D) Wide QRS complex
Answer: D) Wide QRS complex.
Rationale: Peaked T waves are early signs, but wide QRS indicates severe hyperkalemia
and risk of ventricular fibrillation. U waves are seen in hypokalemia.
Question 7
The nurse is administering packed RBCs. After 15 minutes, the patient reports chills
and flank pain. What is the priority action?
A) Slow the transfusion
B) Stop the transfusion immediately
C) Administer acetaminophen
D) Continue and monitor
Answer: B) Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Chills and flank pain suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the provider notified. Normal saline
should be infused through new tubing.
Question 8
A patient with a history of GI bleeding has a hemoglobin of 7.2 g/dL. Which finding is
most concerning?
A) Heart rate of 98 bpm
B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
C) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
D) Oxygen saturation of 94%
Answer: B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg.
Rationale: Hypotension in the setting of acute blood loss indicates inadequate
compensation and possible hypovolemic shock, which is more concerning than mild
tachycardia or tachypnea.
, Question 9
Which symptom is classic for a pulmonary embolism?
A) Pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, hypoxia
B) Substernal chest pain relieved by nitroglycerin
C) Sharp pain worsened with movement
D) Burning pain in the epigastric area
Answer: A) Pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, hypoxia.
Rationale: PE typically presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis,
tachypnea, and hypoxia. Nitroglycerin relief suggests angina, not PE.
Question 10
The nurse notes sudden onset of sharp chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis in a
postoperative patient. What is the priority action?
A) Administer morphine
B) Apply oxygen and notify the provider
C) Check vital signs
D) Start an IV line
Answer: B) Apply oxygen and notify the provider.
Rationale: These symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism. Oxygen and immediate
provider notification are priorities. Morphine may be given later for pain, but
oxygenation comes first.
Question 11
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the
nurse monitor for?
A) Dry cough
B) Bradycardia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Both A and C
